Question 242-1 : The minimum flight visibility required by the standardised european rules of the air for a special vfr flight is… ? [ Question security ]

Question 242-2 : When reports of meteorological visibility or rvr are not available a take off ?

Can be commenced provided the commander can determine that the visibility along the take off runwayarea is equal to or better than the required minimum.

Easa air opsamc1 catopmpa110 aerodrome operating minimatake off operations — aeroplanes a general 1 take off minima should be expressed as visibility or runway visual range rvr limits taking into account all relevant factors for each aerodrome planned to be used and aircraft characteristics where there is a specific need to see and avoid obstacles on departure andor for a forced landing additional conditions eg ceiling should be specified 2 the commander should not commence take off unless the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are equal to or better than applicable minima for landing at that aerodrome unless a weather permissible take off alternate aerodrome is available 3 when the reported meteorological visibility vis is below that required for take off and rvr is not reported a take off should only be commenced if the commander can determine that the visibility along the take off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum 4 when no reported meteorological visibility or rvr is available a take off should only be commenced if the commander can determine that the visibility along the take off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum

Question 242-3 : In accordance with ops regulations 100% of the passengers in a non pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time… ?

At pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft.

Easa air opsregulation eu no 9652012catidea240 supplemental oxygen – non pressurised aeroplanesnon pressurised aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft shall be equipped with supplemental oxygen equipment capable of storing and dispensing the oxygen supplies in accordance with table 1table 1 oxygen minimum requirements for non pressurised aeroplanessupply forduration and cabin pressure altitude1 occupants of flight crew compartment seats on flight crew compartment duty and crew members assisting flight crew in their dutiesthe entire flying time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft2 required cabin crew membersthe entire flying time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft3 additional crew members and 100% of passengers 1 the entire flying time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft4 10% of passengers 1 the entire flying time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft 1 passenger numbers in table 1 refer to passengers actually carried on board including persons younger than 24 months

Question 242-4 : Consider the european regulations on air operations which of the following statements correctly describes the radio communication equipment required for operations under ifr ?

The radio communication equipment must be in accordance with the applicable airspace requirements and include at least two independent radio communication systems.

Easa air opsregulation eu 20191387catidea345 communication navigation and surveillance equipment for operations under ifr or under vfr over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks a aeroplanes operated under ifr or under vfr over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks shall be equipped with radio communication navigation and surveillance equipment in accordance with the applicable airspace requirements b radio communication equipment shall include at least two independent radio communication systems necessary under normal operating conditions to communicate with an appropriate ground station from any point on the route including diversions c notwithstanding point b aeroplanes operated for short haul operations in the north atlantic high level nat hla airspace and not crossing the north atlantic shall be equipped with at least one long range communication system in case alternative communication procedures are published for the airspace concerned d aeroplanes shall have sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that in the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight the remaining equipment shall allow safe navigation in accordance with the flight plan e aeroplanes operated on flights in which it is intended to land in imc shall be equipped with suitable equipment capable of providing guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be performed for each aerodrome at which it is intended to land in imc and for any designated alternate aerodrome f for pbn operations the aircraft shall meet the airworthiness certification requirements for the appropriate navigation specification

Question 242-5 : Flight crew members who operate both helicopters and aeroplanes are limited to operations on… ?

Only one type of aeroplane and one type of helicopter.

Easa air opsregulation eu no 9652012orofc240 operation on more than one type or variant a the procedures or operational restrictions for operation on more than one type or variant established in the operations manual and approved by the competent authority shall cover 1 the flight crew members’ minimum experience level 2 the minimum experience level on one type or variant before beginning training for and operation of another type or variant 3 the process whereby flight crew qualified on one type or variant will be trained and qualified on another type or variant and 4 all applicable recent experience requirements for each type or variant b when a flight crew member operates both helicopters and aeroplanes that flight crew member shall be limited to operations on only one type of aeroplane and one type of helicopter c point a shall not apply to operations of performance class b aeroplane if they are limited to single pilot classes of reciprocating engine aeroplanes under vfr by day point b shall not apply to operations of performance class b aeroplane if they are limited to single pilot classes of reciprocating engine aeroplanes

Question 242-6 : Within how many days following completion of the skill test should a pilot undertaking a zero flight time training zftt course commence line flying under supervision ?

21 days.

Basically once you complete the skills test for your type rating you should start your line training within 21 days with zftt you have trained only in a simulator and it is important that the rookie pilot flies the actual aircraft soon after this trainingalso inside the 21 days you should complete the 6 take offs and landings required to complete the type ratingline training is flying under supervision and with line training captains this varies as to how many flightssectors you must fly before you become qualified depending on the operator's requirements and your experienceeasa air ops regulation eu no 712014 orofc220 operator conversion training and checking e in the case of aeroplanes pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training ‘zftt’ course shall 1 commence line flying under supervision not later than 21 days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator the content of that training shall be described in the operations manual 2 complete six take offs and landings in an fstd not later than 21 days after the completion of the skill test under the supervision of a type rating instructor for aeroplanes ‘tri a ’ occupying the other pilot seat the number of take offs and landings may be reduced when credits are defined in the mandatory part of the operational suitability data established in accordance with regulation eu no 7482012 if those take offs and landings have not been performed within 21 days the operator shall provide refresher training the content of which shall be described in the operations manual 3 conduct the first four take offs and landings of the lifus in the aeroplane under the supervision of a tri a occupying the other pilot seat the number of take offs and landings may be reduced when credits are defined in the mandatory part of the operational suitability data established in accordance with regulation eu no 7482012

Question 242-7 : Consider the european regulations on air operations as applicable to commercial air transport if a pilot intends to act as commander in either pilot`s seat which additional training and checking must heshe first complete ?

An engine failure during take off a one engine inoperative approach and go around and a one engine inoperative landing.

Easa air opsregulation eu no 9652012orofc235 pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat a commanders whose duties require them to operate in either pilot seat and carry out the duties of a co pilot or commanders required to conduct training or checking duties shall complete additional training and checking as specified in the operations manual the check may be conducted together with the operator proficiency check prescribed in orofc230 b b the additional training and checking shall include at least the following 1 an engine failure during take off 2 a one engine inoperative approach and go around and 3 a one engine inoperative landing

Question 242-8 : Differences training requires… ?

Additional knowledge and training on the aircraft or an appropriate training device.

Easa part fclgm1 fcl135a fcl135hdifferences and familiarisation training a differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft b familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge

Question 242-9 : Magnetic compasses become unreliable in polar regions because of the… ?

Reduced horizontal field strength.

A freely suspended magnet will align itself with the earth's magnetic field the total field t is resolved into a horizontal component h and a vertical component z horizontal componentthe horizontal component h of the earth’s field is known as the directive force and it is the component which aligns the magnetic compass needle with the magnetic meridian providing a directional reference near the magnetic poles the vertical component becomes much greater than at lower latitudes where the horizontal component dominates this leads to needles or cards in compasses being pulled downwards towards the ground getting caught or dragging instead of turning freely in the horizontal plane the horizontal component approaches zero over the poles => with a horizontal component which is too weak compass performance becomes sluggish and inaccuratethe value of the horizontal component is maximum at the magnetic equator a freely suspended compass needle in the earth's magnetic field will be horizontal to the earth in line with the horizontal component

Question 242-10 : As a contingency against a total ins irs failure and in order to be able to continue navigating safely while flying in polar regions the flight crew should at regular intervals… ?

Plot the aircraft`s position and the time on a polar stereographic chart.

this question predates the learning objective change in 2021 polar stereographic charts were removed in both the general navigation gnav and ops syllabi easa may have removed itnorth atlantic operations and airspace manual icao nat doc 007 chapter 8 position plotting8212 plotting the aircraft’s progress on a chart can be a useful tool for contingency situations in the event of a total loss of long range navigation capability a completed plotting chart will assist in the necessary reversion to dead reckoning in other contingency situations it can help in assessing separation assurance from other tracks or from high terrain eg over greenland chapter 12 complete failure of navigation systems computers1229 a characteristic of the navigation computer system is that the computer element might fail and thus deprive the aircraft of steering guidance and the indication of position relative to cleared track but the basic outputs of the irs latlong drift and ground speed are left unimpaired a typical drill to minimise the effects of a total navigation computer system failure is suggested below it requires comprehensive use of the plotting charta use the basic irsgps outputs to adjust heading to maintain mean track and to calculate etas b draw the cleared route on a chart and extract mean true tracks between way points c at intervals of not more than 15 minutes plot position latlong on the chart and adjust heading to regain trackpolar stereographic chart these charts are used in polar regions between 50 90 because the others can’t cope with convergence that well to get the correct details the paper is held over the top of the pole and the imaginary light is projected straight up from the centre of the earth to itparallels of latitudes are concentric circles and the spacing between them increases away from the pole so the scale expands like with mercator scale and convergency are correct at the pole on a polar stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole great circles except meridians more closely approximate a straight line at the higher latitude rhumb lines are curves concave to the pole

Question 242-11 : Navigation tasks at high latitudes may be complicated due to the very rapid changes over small distances in… ?

Magnetic variation.

Magnetic variation and convergence of the meridiansconventional magnetic compasses sense magnetic direction by detecting the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field since this horizontal component becomes very weak near the magnetic poles magnetic compasses are highly unreliable near the poles within these areas air navigation tasks are further complicated by very rapid changes in magnetic variation over small distances for example when flying between the magnetic north pole and the true north pole a heading of true north results in a magnetic heading of south a magnetic variation of 180 degrees the nature of the conventional geographic coordinate system is such that all meridians converge to the pole this convergence also presents additional directional complications when flying a great circle courses at latitudes greater than 67 degrees convergence of the meridians can create rapid changes in true headings and true courses with small changes in aircraft position as a result relatively small errors in determining the aircraft's actual position can produce very large errors in determining the proper heading to fly and maintain the assigned flight path when even small errors occur very large navigation errors can develop over extremely short distanceseven in straight and level flight along a great circle course true course can change several degrees over a short period of time you are placed in the peculiar position of constantly altering the aircraft’s magnetic heading in order to maintain a straight course

Question 242-12 : In nat airspace air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east west direction north of 70°n to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of… ?

20° of longitude.

Nat regional supplementary procedures supps icao doc 7030chapter 3 communications313 position reports3131 unless otherwise required by air traffic services position reports for flights on routes not defined by designated reporting points shall be made at the significant points listed in the flight plan3132 air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east west direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of a 10 degrees of longitude south of 70°n between 5°w and 65°w andb 20 degrees of longitude north of 70°n between 10°w and 50°w 3133 in requiring aircraft to report their position at intermediate intervals the air traffic services authorities will be guided by the requirement to have position information at approximately ho y intervals and also by the need to cater for varying types of aircraft and for varying traffic and meteorological conditions

Question 242-13 : Which of the following statements is correct ?

Differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraftfamiliarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.

Basically differences training = additional knowledge and training familiarization = additional knowledge onlydifferences training is needed when operating another variant of the same type for example moving from the b737 classic to the b737 ng although the same type rating there is enough difference between these aircraft to require not only ground school training but also time in the sim to become acquainted familiarization training is needed when operating another version of the same type for example moving from the a320 to the a321 this is the same type rating and these aircraft are similar enough to require only ground school and not sim time easa part fcl gm1 fcl135a fcl135h differences and familiarisation training a differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft b familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge

Question 242-14 : An aircraft has just been turned around and is ready to depart but the rvr has dropped below 300 m the operator is approved to conduct low visibility take offs on the type one of the pilots was unable to refresh his lvo qualification due unserviceable equipment during his last opc the other pilot is ?

Delay the take off until rvr > 400 m because the pilots cannot fly under lvo.

Low visibility operations comprise take off operations in visibility conditions of less than 400 m rvr and category ii and iii precision instrument approach and landing operationsnow a commander is authorized to conduct a take off in minimum rvr 125 m when heshe has successfully completed the lvo training prescribed in the recurrent simulator training due to the high workload involved with lvp's during ground operations fos shall act as pm during take off operations in visibility conditions of less than 400 m rvr the flight can only proceed if when the rvr is below 400 m both pilots are qualified for lvo therefore in this case the flight needs to be postponed until the rvr improves and rises above 400 measa air ops regulation eu no 9652012 spalvo120 flight crew training and qualificationsthe operator shall ensure that prior to conducting an lvo a each flight crew member 1 complies with the training and checking requirements prescribed in the operations manual including flight simulation training device fstd training in operating to the limiting values of rvrvis visibility and dh specific to the operation and the aircraft type 2 is qualified in accordance with the standards prescribed in the operations manual b the training and checking is conducted in accordance with a detailed syllabus

Question 242-15 : An operator shall establish and maintain a flight safety programme who may the operator nominate as responsible for that programme assume the people mentioned are not performing any other functions or roles 1 accountable manager 2 line captain 3 finance director 4 chief executive officer ?

1 and 2.

A flight safety programme refers to a comprehensive system implemented by an aircraft operator to proactively identify assess and mitigate safety risks within their operation typically includingprocedures for reporting incidentsanalysing dataimplementing corrective actionsand promoting a strong safety culture across all levels of the organizationthis question has similarities with other questions be careful to understand exactly what it is askingaccountable manager holds ultimate responsibility and authority for the safety and compliance of the operator along with the flight safety programmesafety manager manages the day to day operation and effectiveness of the operator's safety management system sms finance director counts the $$ and has no involvement with the operation of aircraftline captain the line captain is a pilot who has an operational role within the operator and as such is qualified to be responsible for the flight safety programmechief executive officer controls the organisation but is typically a non operational role easa air ops amc1 oro 200 a 1 2 3 5 management system non complex operators — general c the operator should identify a person who fulfils the role of safety manager and who is responsible for coordinating the safety management related processes and tasks this person may be the accountable manager or a person with an operational role within the operator

Question 242-16 : To assure safe operations in low visibility conditions which additional procedures can be followed to permit continued operations ?

Additional procedures on the ground if the visibility is less than 800 m.

When the airfield visibility drops below 800 m two things will happen 1 air traffic control will instigate low visibility procedures lvp's at the aerodrome and this will be declared by atis etc these procedures ensure safe operation in these weather conditions examples include reducing vehicular access to the movement area the use of a ‘follow me’ vehicle applying a simplified taxi pattern etc2 the crew will adopt low visibility operations lvo's these procedures established by the operator ensure safe operation in these weather conditions examples include reducing taxiing speed to 10 kts enhanced briefings verifying all crew members are lvo qualified etceasa air ops spalvo115 aerodrome related requirements a the operator shall not use an aerodrome for lvos below a visibility of 800 m unless the aerodrome has been approved for such operations by the state of the aerodrome andlow visibility procedures lvp have been established b if the operator selects an aerodrome where the term lvp is not used the operator shall ensure that there are equivalent procedures that adhere to the requirements of lvp at the aerodrome this situation shall be clearly noted in the operations manual or procedures manual including guidance to the flight crew on how to determine that the equivalent lvp are in effect

Question 242-17 : Given the following information select the lowest required weather conditions for the aerodrome to be used as an etops en route alternate aerodrome with the following approaches available approach type ils cat i dh 240 feet rvrvisibility 550 metres approach type loc dme mdh 420 feet rvrvisibility ?

Ceiling 440 ft and visibility 1350 m.

Spaetops115 etops en route alternate aerodrome planning minimatable 1 planning minima for etops en route alternate aerodrome type of approach planning minima precision approach dah + 200 ft rvrvis + 800 m* non precision approach or circling approach mdah + 400 ft* rvrvis + 1500 m * vis visibility mdah minimum descent altitude heightit is necessary to calculate the values for both approach types in order to obtain the lowest required weather conditions planning minimaceilingvisibilityprecision approachils cat i dh 240 feet rvrvisibility 550 metresdah + 200 ft rvrvis + 800 m240 ft + 200 ft = 440 ft550 m + 800 m = 1350 mnon precision approachloc dme mdh 420 feet rvrvisibility 1200 metresmdah + 400 ft rvrvis + 1500 m420 ft +400 ft = 820 ft1200 m + 1500 m = 2700 mceiling 440 ft visibility 1350 m

Question 242-18 : Prior to performing low visibility operations lvo each crew member must regulary complete relevant training include… ?

Operating to the limiting values of the rvr visibility and decision height in a flight simulation training device.

Training for low visibility operations lvo in the actual aircraft and in the actual weather conditions involved is unrealistic a larger airline has 100's of pilots and can not simply wait for bad weather to suddenly conduct their training the training is therefore done in a flight simulator easa air ops regulation eu no 9652012 spalvo120 flight crew training and qualificationsthe operator shall ensure that prior to conducting an lvo a each flight crew member 1 complies with the training and checking requirements prescribed in the operations manual including flight simulation training device fstd training in operating to the limiting values of rvrvis visibility and dh specific to the operation and the aircraft type 2 is qualified in accordance with the standards prescribed in the operations manual b the training and checking is conducted in accordance with a detailed syllabus

Question 242-19 : A two engine aeroplane has an etops approval for 180 minutes those 180 minutes are based an the one engine inoperative speed the departure aerodrome cannot be used as a take off alternate because of meteorological conditions there are no mel restrictions what is the maximum allowed flight time to ?

120 minutes.

Easa air opsregulation eu no 9652012catopmpa180 selection of aerodromes – aeroplanes where it is not possible to use the departure aerodrome as a take off alternate aerodrome due to meteorological or performance reasons the operator shall select another adequate take off alternate aerodrome that is no further from the departure aerodrome than for two engined aeroplanes one hour flying time at an oei cruising speed according to the afm in still air standard conditions based on the actual take off mass or the etops diversion time approved in accordance with annex v part spa subpart f subject to any mel restriction up to a maximum of two hours at the oei cruising speed according to the afm in still air standard conditions based on the actual take off mass for three and four engined aeroplanes two hours flying time at the oei cruising speed according to the afm in still air standard conditions based on the actual take off mass

Question 242-20 : Consider the european regulations on air operations as applicable to commercial air transport commanders whose duties require them to operate in either pilot seat and carry out the duties of a co pilot or commanders required to conduct training or checking duties shall complete additional training ?

An engine failure during take off a one engine inoperative approach and go around and a one engine inoperative landing.

Often a captain will be required to operate from the right hand seat for example 2 captains flying together no first officer where one is nominated as commander and so the other captain simply flies from the right or as a training captain line training a new skipper and so sitting on the right hand side to qualify for the right you must do additional training and checking which basically covers engine failure scenarios on departure approach landing and go around as shown fully in the regulation beloweasa air ops regulation eu no 9652012 orofc235 pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat a commanders whose duties require them to operate in either pilot seat and carry out the duties of a co pilot or commanders required to conduct training or checking duties shall complete additional training and checking as specified in the operations manual the check may be conducted together with the operator proficiency check prescribed in orofc230 b b the additional training and checking shall include at least the following 1 an engine failure during take off 2 a one engine inoperative approach and go around and 3 a one engine inoperative landing

Question 242-21 : Which equipment is necessary to operate in rvsm airspace 1 two independent altitude measurement systems 2 a gps with altitude reporting system 3 an altitude alerting system 4 an automatic altitude control system 5 a secondary surveillance radar ssr transponder with altitude reporting system that ?

1 3 4 5.

Easa air opsregulation eu no 9652012sparvsm110 rvsm equipment requirementsaircraft used for operations in rvsm airspace shall be equipped with a two independent altitude measurement systems b an altitude alerting system c an automatic altitude control system d a secondary surveillance radar ssr transponder with altitude reporting system that can be connected to the altitude measurement system in use for altitude control

Question 242-22 : According to oro 205 when the certified operator or the spo authorisation holder contracts any part of its activity to an organisation that is not itself certified or authorised to carry out such activity the contracted organisation shall work under the approval of… ?

The operator.

Easa air opsregulation eu 20191384oro 205 contracted activities a when contracting or purchasing any services or products as a part of its activities the operator shall ensure all of the following 1 that the contracted or purchased services or products comply with the applicable requirements 2 that any aviation safety hazards associated with contracted or purchased services or products are considered by the operator's management system b when the certified operator or the spo authorisation holder contracts any part of its activity to an organisation that is not itself certified or authorised in accordance with this part to carry out such activity the contracted organisation shall work under the approval of the operator the contracting organisation shall ensure that the competent authority is given access to the contracted organisation to determine continued compliance with the applicable requirements

Question 242-23 : When shall an aircraft be equipped with survival equipment ?

When the aircraft is operated over areas in which search would be especially difficult.

Basically survival equipment is considered for when search and rescue sar could take time to locate the survivors and so keep them alive in the meantime such routes would include remote areas deserts oceans etcnote emergency locator transmitter = elteasa air ops regulation eu no 9652012 catidea305 survival equipment a aeroplanes operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped with 1 signalling equipment to make the distress signals 2 at least one elt s and 3 additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the number of persons on board

Question 242-24 : A flight with a swedish registered aircraft is performing domestic air services in germany with a french nationality crew and operation on an italian aoc the state which is defined as the competent authority is… ?

Italy.

Aoc air operator certificateeasa air opsregulation eu no 9652012cat 100 competent authoritythe competent authority shall be the authority designated by the member state in which the operator has its principal place of business italian aoc => competent authority italy

Question 242-25 : During a commander's upgrade course the following must be accomplished 1 engine failure during take off2 engine failure during cruise3 one engine inoperative descent4 one engine inoperative go around and missed approach5 one engine inoperative landing ?

1 4 and 5.

Easa air ops regulation eu no 9652012 orofc205 command course a for aeroplane and helicopter operations the command course shall include at least the following elements 1 training in an fstd which includes line oriented flight training loft andor flight training 2 the operator proficiency check operating as commander 3 command responsibilities training amc1 orofc230 recurrent training and checking b recurrent checking recurrent checking should comprise the following 1 operator proficiency checks i aeroplanes where applicable operator proficiency checks should include the following manoeuvres as pilot flying a rejected take off when an fstd is available to represent that specific aeroplane otherwise touch drills only b take off with engine failure between v1 and v2 take off safety speed or if carried out in an aeroplane at a safe speed above v2 c 3d approach operation to minima with in the case of multi engine aeroplanes one engine inoperative d 2d approach operation to minima e at least one of the 3d or 2d approach operations should be an rnp apch or rnp ar apch operation f missed approach on instruments from minima with in the case of multiengined aeroplanes one engine inoperative g landing with one engine inoperative for single engine aeroplanes a practice forced landing is required

Question 242-26 : An airline operator has just made significant changes to the continuing airworthiness part of its management system because it is opening up a maintenance facility at a new location before implementing these changes the operator shall seek approval from… ?

The competent authority.

Approvals' are granted by the competent authority to operators who meet the required standardsan operator can not grant it's own approval which removes the answers of the company management or the safety managereasa does not issue approvals but instead oversees both authorities and operatorscommission regulation eu no 13212014 m1for the purpose of this part the competent authority shall be 4 for the approval of maintenance programmes i the authority designated by the member state of registry ii in the case of commercial air transport when the member state of the operator is different from the state of registry the authority agreed by the above two states prior to the approval of the maintenance programme iii by derogation from point 4 i when the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft not used in commercial air transport is managed by a continuing airworthiness management organisation approved in accordance with section a subpart g of this annex part m not subject to the oversight of the member state of registry and only if agreed with the member state of registry prior to the approval of the maintenance programme a the authority designated by the member state responsible for the oversight of the continuing airworthiness management organisation or b the agency if the continuing airworthiness management organisation is located in a third country

Question 242-27 : Which of the following statements is correct for an aeroplane flying from new york to tokyo and passing the north domestic canadian airspace ?

The pilots may expect the vors to be oriented to the true north.

in canada airspace northern domestic airspace nda is the area of compass unreliability within which runways and navaids are oriented to true north

Question 242-28 : The operator is obliged to establish the structure with a compliance monitoring system the feedback is directed to the… ?

Accountable manager.

Common questions in the ops bank can be covered by safety manager flight data monitoring ie the manager implementing safety accountable manager compliance monitoring ie the ultimate manager responsible for safetyeasa air ops regulation eu no 9652012oro 200 management system a the operator shall establish implement and maintain a management system that includes 1 clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the operator including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager 2 a description of the overall philosophies and principles of the operator with regard to safety referred to as the safety policy 3 the identification of aviation safety hazards entailed by the activities of the operator their evaluation and the management of associated risks including taking actions to mitigate the risk and verify their effectiveness 4 maintaining personnel trained and competent to perform their tasks 5 documentation of all management system key processes including a process for making personnel aware of their responsibilities and the procedure for amending this documentation 6 a function to monitor compliance of the operator with the relevant requirements compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system of findings to the accountable manager to ensure effective implementation of corrective actions as necessary and 7 any additional requirements that are prescribed in the relevant subparts of this annex or other applicable annexes b the management system shall correspond to the size of the operator and the nature and complexity of its activities taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in these activities

Question 242-29 : According to the applicable operational requirements the operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme and appoint a post holder responsible for the programme the responsible for the programme is… ?

Safety manager.

This question has similarities with other questions be careful to understand exactly what it is asking accountable manager holds ultimate responsibility and authority for the safety and compliance of the operator safety manager manages the day to day operation and effectiveness of the operator's safety management system sms here we are asked who would be the post holder responsible for the flight data monitoring fdm programme this is describing the safety manager the safety manager is responsible for the day to day running of the sms safety management system which includes fdmfor a smaller operator non complex this is typically the accountable manager or a line captain both of these positions offer sufficient relevant experience in operational roles to be an effective safety managerfor a larger operator complex this position would now need a more dedicated specialist due to the size or type of operation now the operator will need a safety manager and safety review boardeasa air ops regulation eu 20151329 oroaoc130 flight data monitoring – aeroplanes a the operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme which shall be integrated in its management system for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take off mass of more than 27 000 kg b the flight data monitoring programme shall be non punitive and contain adequate safeguards to protect the source s of the dataamc1 oroaoc130 flight data monitoring – aeroplanes flight data monitoring fdm programme a the safety manager as defined under amc1 oro 200 a 1 should be responsible for the identification and assessment of issues and their transmission to the manager s responsible for the process es concerned the latter should be responsible for taking appropriate and practicable safety action within a reasonable period of time that reflects the severity of the issue

Question 242-30 : What must the operator arrange for crew on airport standby duty ?

Accommodation.

Easa air opsoroftl225 standby and duties at the airport regulationif an operator assigns crew members to standby or to any duty at the airport the following shall apply in accordance with the certification specifications applicable to the type of operation e the operator shall provide accommodation to the crew member on airport standby

Question 242-31 : To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is ?

Useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxy.

Question 242-32 : Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway under the following circumstances 1 when cross wind component including gust exceeds 15 kt2 when the tail wind component including gust exceeds 5 kt3 when the runway is not clear or drythe combination regrouping ?

1 2 3.

Doc 8168 21 noise preferential runways 211 preferred runway directions for take off and landing appropriate to the operation are nominated for noise abatement purposes the objective being to utilize whenever possible those runways that permit aeroplanes to avoid noise sensitive areas during the initial departure and final approach phases of flight212 runways should not normally be selected for preferential use for landing unless they are equipped with suitable glide path guidance eg ils or a visual approach slope indicator system for operations in visual meteorological conditions213 noise abatement should not be the determining factor in runway nomination under the following circumstances a if the runway surface conditions are adversely affected eg by snow slush ice or water mud rubber oil or other substances b for landing in conditions when the ceiling is lower than 150 m 500 ft above aerodrome elevation or for takeoff and landing when the horizontal visibility is less than 19 km 1 nm c when the crosswind component including gusts exceeds 28 kmh 15 kt d when the tailwind component including gusts exceeds 9 kmh 5 kt ande when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when adverse weather conditions eg thunderstorms are expected to affect the approach or departure

Question 242-33 : If smoke appears in the air conditioning the first action to take is to ?

Question 242-34 : Malfunctioning of the automatic pressurization system is indicated by 1 a change in environmental sounds2 the cabin altitude gauge indicates an abnormal rate of climb3 the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior of the aircraft decreasesthe combination regrouping all the ?

1 2 3.

Question 242-35 : The mel minimum equipment list is produced by ?

The operator.

The master minimum equipment list mmel is established by the manufacturer

Question 242-36 : Wind shear and microburstduring a manual approach the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind in the absence of a pilot action the aeroplane 1 flies above the intended approach path 2 flies below the intended approach path3 has an increasing true airspeed4 has a decreasing ?

1 3.

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Question 242-37 : Wind shear and microburstduring a manual approach the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind in the absence of a pilot action the aeroplane 1 flies above the intended approach path2 flies below the intended approach path3 has an increasing true airspeed4 has a decreasing ?

1 3.

Img com encom070h 9jpg

Question 242-38 : A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for 1 a paper fire2 a hydrocarbon fire3 a fabric fire4 an electrical fire5 a wood firethe combination regrouping all the correct statements is ?

1 3 5.

Class a fire flammable solids any object that might catch ignition and be set on fire requiring the cooling effect of water eg material wood paper cushions etc it is safe to use any type of extinguishers against such fire whenever water is not available class a extinguishers = water class b fire liquid fire liquid fire involves flammable substances that are usually lighter than water eg oil fuel paint kerosene water and water glycol fire extinguishers should not be used to fight such fire as water will only help it spread and expand concentration should be on the exclusion of oxy class b extinguishers = foam class c fire electrical fire fire involving electrical equipment is usually the result of a short circuit it is essential to cut the electrical source of ignition and exclude the oxy beware of using water against such fire to prevent electric shocks if there is no other alternative water glycol extinguishers could be used in short shots class c extinguishers = dry chemicals hafex gas class d fire metal fire metal fire involves certain combustible metals eg magnesium titanium potassium sodium these metals burn at high temperatures and give off sufficient oxygen to support combustion they may react violently with water or other chemicals and must be handled with care class d extinguishers = sand dry chemical powder a water h2o fire extinguisher can be used for a class a fire

Question 242-39 : The protection time of an anti icing fluid depends on 1 the type and intensity of the showers2 the ambient temperature3 the relative humidity4 the speed of the surface wind5 the temperature of the aircraft skin6 the type of fluid its concentration and temperaturethe combination regrouping all the ?

1 2 3 4 5 6.

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Question 242-40 : The anti icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce the holdover time considerably ?

During strong winds or as a result of other aircraft engines jet blast.

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