A free Premium account on the FCL.055 website! Read here
Sign up to unlock all our services and 15164 corrected and explained questions.
Question 242-1 : When reports of meteorological visibility or rvr are not available, a take off.. ? [ Question security ]
Can be commenced provided the commander can determine that the visibility along the take off runway/area is equal to or better than the required minimum.
Easa air ops..amc1 cat.op.mpa.110 aerodrome operating minima..take off operations — aeroplanes.. a general.. 1 take off minima should be expressed as visibility or runway visual range rvr limits, taking into account all relevant factors for each aerodrome planned to be used and aircraft characteristics. where there is a specific need to see and avoid obstacles on departure and/or for a forced landing, additional conditions, e.g. ceiling, should be specified... 2 the commander should not commence take off unless the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are equal to or better than applicable minima for landing at that aerodrome unless a weather permissible take off alternate aerodrome is available... 3 when the reported meteorological visibility vis is below that required for take off and rvr is not reported, a take off should only be commenced if the commander can determine that the visibility along the take off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum... 4 when no reported meteorological visibility or rvr is available, a take off should only be commenced if the commander can determine that the visibility along the take off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum.
Question 242-2 : In accordance with ops regulations, 100% of the passengers in a non pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time… ?
At pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft.
Easa air ops.regulation eu no 965/2012.cat.ide.a.240 supplemental oxygen – non pressurised aeroplanesnon pressurised aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft shall be equipped with supplemental oxygen equipment capable of storing and dispensing the oxygen supplies in accordance with table 1.table 1.oxygen minimum requirements for non pressurised aeroplanessupply forduration and cabin pressure altitude1. occupants of flight crew compartment seats on flight crew compartment duty and crew members assisting flight crew in their dutiesthe entire flying time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft.2. required cabin crew membersthe entire flying time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft.3. additional crew members and 100% of passengers 1 the entire flying time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft.4. 10% of passengers 1 the entire flying time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft. 1 passenger numbers in table 1 refer to passengers actually carried on board, including persons younger than 24 months.
Question 242-3 : Consider the european regulations on air operations. which of the following statements correctly describes the radio communication equipment required for operations under ifr ?
The radio communication equipment must be in accordance with the applicable airspace requirements and include at least two independent radio communication systems.
Easa air ops..regulation eu 2019/1387..cat.ide.a.345 communication, navigation and surveillance equipment for operations under ifr or under vfr over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks.. a aeroplanes operated under ifr or under vfr over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks shall be equipped with radio communication, navigation and surveillance equipment in accordance with the applicable airspace requirements... b radio communication equipment shall include at least two independent radio communication systems necessary under normal operating conditions to communicate with an appropriate ground station from any point on the route, including diversions... c notwithstanding point b , aeroplanes operated for short haul operations in the north atlantic high level nat hla airspace and not crossing the north atlantic shall be equipped with at least one long range communication system, in case alternative communication procedures are published for the airspace concerned... d aeroplanes shall have sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment shall allow safe navigation in accordance with the flight plan... e aeroplanes operated on flights in which it is intended to land in imc shall be equipped with suitable equipment capable of providing guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be performed for each aerodrome at which it is intended to land in imc and for any designated alternate aerodrome... f for pbn operations the aircraft shall meet the airworthiness certification requirements for the appropriate navigation specification.
Question 242-4 : Flight crew members who operate both helicopters and aeroplanes are limited to operations on… ?
Only one type of aeroplane and one type of helicopter.
Easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..oro.fc.240 operation on more than one type or variant.. a the procedures or operational restrictions for operation on more than one type or variant established in the operations manual and approved by the competent authority shall cover.. 1 the flight crew members’ minimum experience level... 2 the minimum experience level on one type or variant before beginning training for and operation of another type or variant... 3 the process whereby flight crew qualified on one type or variant will be trained and qualified on another type or variant. and.. 4 all applicable recent experience requirements for each type or variant... b when a flight crew member operates both helicopters and aeroplanes, that flight crew member shall be limited to operations on only one type of aeroplane and one type of helicopter... c point a shall not apply to operations of performance class b aeroplane if they are limited to single pilot classes of reciprocating engine aeroplanes under vfr by day. point b shall not apply to operations of performance class b aeroplane if they are limited to single pilot classes of reciprocating engine aeroplanes.
Question 242-5 : Within how many days following completion of the skill test should a pilot undertaking a zero flight time training zftt course commence line flying under supervision ?
21 days
Basically once you complete the skills test for your type rating, you should start your line training within 21 days. with zftt you have trained only in a simulator and it is important that the rookie pilot flies the actual aircraft soon after this training.also inside the 21 days, you should complete the 6 take offs and landings required to complete the type rating.line training is flying under supervision and with line training captains. this varies as to how many flights/sectors you must fly before you become qualified, depending on the operator's requirements and your experience.easa air ops.regulation eu no 71/2014.oro.fc.220 operator conversion training and checking e in the case of aeroplanes, pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training ‘zftt’ course shall 1 commence line flying under supervision not later than 21 days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator. the content of that training shall be described in the operations manual.. 2 complete six take offs and landings in an fstd not later than 21 days after the completion of the skill test under the supervision of a type rating instructor for aeroplanes ‘tri a ’ occupying the other pilot seat. the number of take offs and landings may be reduced when credits are defined in the mandatory part of the operational suitability data established in accordance with regulation eu no 748/2012. if those take offs and landings have not been performed within 21 days, the operator shall provide refresher training the content of which shall be described in the operations manual.. 3 conduct the first four take offs and landings of the lifus in the aeroplane under the supervision of a tri a occupying the other pilot seat. the number of take offs and landings may be reduced when credits are defined in the mandatory part of the operational suitability data established in accordance with regulation eu no 748/2012.
Question 242-6 : Consider the european regulations on air operations, as applicable to commercial air transport. if a pilot intends to act as commander in either pilot`s seat, which additional training and checking must he/she first complete ?
An engine failure during take off, a one engine inoperative approach and go around. and a one engine inoperative landing.
Easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..oro.fc.235 pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat.. a commanders whose duties require them to operate in either pilot seat and carry out the duties of a co pilot, or commanders required to conduct training or checking duties, shall complete additional training and checking as specified in the operations manual. the check may be conducted together with the operator proficiency check prescribed in oro.fc.230 b... b the additional training and checking shall include at least the following.. 1 an engine failure during take off... 2 a one engine inoperative approach and go around. and.. 3 a one engine inoperative landing.
Question 242-7 : Differences training requires… ?
Additional knowledge and training on the aircraft or an appropriate training device.
Easa part fcl..gm1 fcl.135.a. fcl.135.h..differences and familiarisation training.. a differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft... b familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
Question 242-8 : Magnetic compasses become unreliable in polar regions because of the… ?
Reduced horizontal field strength.
.a freely suspended magnet will align itself with the earth's magnetic field. the total field t is resolved into a horizontal component h and a vertical component z.horizontal componentthe horizontal component h of the earth’s field is known as the directive force and it is the component which aligns the magnetic compass needle with the magnetic meridian providing a directional reference.near the magnetic poles, the vertical component becomes much greater than at lower latitudes where the horizontal component dominates. this leads to needles or cards in compasses being pulled downwards towards the ground, getting caught or dragging instead of turning freely in the horizontal plane. the horizontal component approaches zero over the poles => with a horizontal component which is too weak, compass performance becomes sluggish and inaccurate.the value of the horizontal component is maximum at the magnetic equator, a freely suspended compass needle in the earth's magnetic field will be horizontal to the earth in line with the horizontal component.
Question 242-9 : As a contingency against a total ins / irs failure and in order to be able to continue navigating safely while flying in polar regions, the flight crew should, at regular intervals… ?
Plot the aircraft`s position and the time on a polar stereographic chart.
..this question predates the learning objective change in 2021. polar stereographic charts were removed in both the general navigation gnav and ops syllabi. easa may have removed it.....north atlantic operations and airspace manual..icao nat doc 007..chapter 8..position plotting..8.2.12 plotting the aircraft’s progress on a chart can be a useful tool for contingency situations. in the event of a total loss of long range navigation capability, a completed plotting chart will assist in the necessary reversion to dead reckoning. in other contingency situations it can help in assessing separation assurance from other tracks or from high terrain e.g over greenland...chapter 12..complete failure of navigation systems computers..12.2.9 a characteristic of the navigation computer system is that the computer element might fail, and thus deprive the aircraft of steering guidance and the indication of position relative to cleared track, but the basic outputs of the irs lat/long, drift and ground speed are left unimpaired. a typical drill to minimise the effects of a total navigation computer system failure is suggested below. it requires comprehensive use of the plotting chart...a use the basic irs/gps outputs to adjust heading to maintain mean track and to calculate etas...b draw the cleared route on a chart and extract mean true tracks between way points...c at intervals of not more than 15 minutes plot position lat/long on the chart and adjust heading to regain track....polar stereographic chart..these charts are used in polar regions between 50 90 because the others can’t cope with convergence that well...to get the correct details, the paper is held over the top of the pole and the imaginary light is projected straight up from the centre of the earth to it...parallels of latitudes are concentric circles, and the spacing between them increases away from the pole, so the scale expands,..like with mercator scale and convergency are correct at the pole...on a polar stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole, great circles, except meridians, more closely approximate a straight line at the higher latitude...rhumb lines are curves concave to the pole.
Question 242-10 : Navigation tasks at high latitudes may be complicated due to the very rapid changes, over small distances, in… ?
Magnetic variation.
.magnetic variation and convergence of the meridians.conventional magnetic compasses sense magnetic direction by detecting the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field. since this horizontal component becomes very weak near the magnetic poles, magnetic compasses are highly unreliable near the poles. within these areas, air navigation tasks are further complicated by very rapid changes in magnetic variation over small distances. for example, when flying between the magnetic north pole and the true north pole, a heading of true north results in a magnetic heading of south a magnetic variation of 180 degrees.the nature of the conventional geographic coordinate system is such that all meridians converge to the pole. this convergence also presents additional directional complications. when flying a great circle courses at latitudes greater than 67 degrees, convergence of the meridians can create rapid changes in true headings and true courses with small changes in aircraft position. as a result, relatively small errors in determining the aircraft's actual position can produce very large errors in determining the proper heading to fly and maintain the assigned flight path. when even small errors occur, very large navigation errors can develop over extremely short distances.even in straight and level flight along a great circle course, true course can change several degrees over a short period of time. you are placed in the peculiar position of constantly altering the aircraft’s magnetic heading in order to maintain a straight course.
Question 242-11 : In nat airspace , air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east west direction, north of 70°n, to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of… ?
20° of longitude.
Nat regional supplementary procedures supps..icao doc 7030..chapter 3. communications..3.1.3 position reports..3.1.3.1 unless otherwise required by air traffic services, position reports for flights on routes not defined by designated reporting points shall be made at the significant points listed in the flight plan...3.1.3.2 air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east west direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of..a 10 degrees of longitude south of 70°n between 5°w and 65°w. and..b 20 degrees of longitude north of 70°n between 10°w and 50°w...3.1.3.3 in requiring aircraft to report their position at intermediate intervals, the air traffic services authorities will be guided by the requirement to have position information at approximately ho y intervals and also by the need to cater for varying types of aircraft and for varying traffic and meteorological conditions.
Question 242-12 : Which of the following statements is correct ?
Differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft.familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
Basically... differences training = additional knowledge and training. familiarization = additional knowledge only...differences training is needed when operating another variant of the same type. for example, moving from the b737 classic to the b737 ng. although the same type rating, there is enough difference between these aircraft to require not only ground school training but also time in the sim to become acquainted...familiarization training is needed when operating another version of the same type. for example, moving from the a320 to the a321. this is the same type rating and these aircraft are similar enough to require only ground school, and not sim time....easa part fcl..gm1 fcl.135.a. fcl.135.h..differences and familiarisation training.. a differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft... b familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
Question 242-13 : An aircraft has just been turned around and is ready to depart, but the rvr has dropped below 300 m. the operator is approved to conduct low visibility take offs on the type. one of the pilots was unable to refresh his lvo qualification due unserviceable equipment during his last opc, the other ?
Delay the take off until rvr > 400 m because the pilots cannot fly under lvo.
Low visibility operations comprise.. take off operations in visibility conditions of less than 400 m rvr, and.. category ii and iii precision instrument approach and landing operations...now, a commander is authorized to conduct a take off in minimum rvr 125 m when he/she has successfully completed the lvo training prescribed in the recurrent simulator training. due to the high workload involved with lvp's during ground operations fos shall act as pm during take off operations in visibility conditions of less than 400 m rvr. the flight can only proceed if, when the rvr is below 400 m, both pilots are qualified for lvo. therefore, in this case, the flight needs to be postponed until the rvr improves and rises above 400 m....easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..spa.lvo.120 flight crew training and qualifications..the operator shall ensure that, prior to conducting an lvo.. a each flight crew member.. 1 complies with the training and checking requirements prescribed in the operations manual, including flight simulation training device fstd training, in operating to the limiting values of rvr/vis visibility and dh specific to the operation and the aircraft type... 2 is qualified in accordance with the standards prescribed in the operations manual.... b the training and checking is conducted in accordance with a detailed syllabus.
Question 242-14 : An operator shall establish and maintain a flight safety programme. who may the operator nominate as responsible for that programme assume the people mentioned are not performing any other functions or roles...1 accountable manager..2 line captain..3 finance director..4 chief executive officer ?
1 and 2
A flight safety programme refers to a comprehensive system implemented by an aircraft operator to proactively identify, assess, and mitigate safety risks within their operation, typically includingprocedures for reporting incidents,analysing data,implementing corrective actions,and promoting a strong safety culture across all levels of the organizationthis question has similarities with other questions. be careful to understand exactly what it is asking...accountable manager holds ultimate responsibility and authority for the safety and compliance of the operator along with the flight safety programme.safety manager manages the day to day operation and effectiveness of the operator's safety management system sms.finance director counts the $$ and has no involvement with the operation of aircraft.line captain the line captain is a pilot who has an operational role within the operator and as such is qualified to be responsible for the flight safety programme.chief executive officer controls the organisation but is typically a non operational role. easa air ops.amc1 oro. 200 a 1. 2. 3. 5 management system.non complex operators — general c the operator should identify a person who fulfils the role of safety manager and who is responsible for coordinating the safety management related processes and tasks. this person may be the accountable manager or a person with an operational role within the operator.
Question 242-15 : To assure safe operations in low visibility conditions, which additional procedures can be followed to permit continued operations ?
Additional procedures on the ground if the visibility is less than 800 m.
When the airfield visibility drops below 800 m, two things will happen 1. air traffic control will instigate low visibility procedures lvp's at the aerodrome and this will be declared by atis, etc. these procedures ensure safe operation in these weather conditions. examples include reducing vehicular access to the movement area, the use of a ‘follow me’ vehicle, applying a simplified taxi pattern, etc.2. the crew will adopt low visibility operations lvo's. these procedures, established by the operator, ensure safe operation in these weather conditions. examples include reducing taxiing speed to 10 kts, enhanced briefings, verifying all crew members are lvo qualified, etc.easa air ops.spa.lvo.115 aerodrome related requirements a the operator shall not use an aerodrome for lvos below a visibility of 800 m unless the aerodrome has been approved for such operations by the state of the aerodrome. andlow visibility procedures lvp have been established b if the operator selects an aerodrome where the term lvp is not used, the operator shall ensure that there are equivalent procedures that adhere to the requirements of lvp at the aerodrome. this situation shall be clearly noted in the operations manual or procedures manual including guidance to the flight crew on how to determine that the equivalent lvp are in effect.
Question 242-16 : Given the following information, select the lowest required weather conditions for the aerodrome to be used as an etops en route alternate aerodrome with the following approaches available approach type ils cat i, dh 240 feet, rvr/visibility 550 metres.approach type loc dme, mdh 420 feet, ?
Ceiling 440 ft and visibility 1350 m.
Spa.etops.115 etops en route alternate aerodrome planning minimatable 1 planning minima for etops en route alternate aerodrome type of approach planning minima.precision approach da/h + 200 ft. rvr/vis + 800 m*.non precision approach or circling approach mda/h + 400 ft* rvr/vis + 1500 m.* vis visibility. mda/h minimum descent altitude / heightit is necessary to calculate the values for both approach types in order to obtain the lowest required weather conditions planning minimaceilingvisibilityprecision approachils cat i, dh 240 feet, rvr/visibility 550 metresda/h + 200 ft..rvr/vis + 800 m240 ft + 200 ft = 440 ft550 m + 800 m =.1350 mnon precision approachloc dme, mdh 420 feet, rvr/visibility 1200 metresmda/h + 400 ft..rvr/vis + 1500 m420 ft +400 ft = 820 ft1200 m + 1500 m =.2700 mceiling 440 ft.visibility 1350 m
Question 242-17 : Prior to performing low visibility operations lvo each crew member must regulary complete relevant training include… ?
Operating to the limiting values of the rvr / visibility and decision height in a flight simulation training device.
Training for low visibility operations lvo in the actual aircraft and in the actual weather conditions involved is unrealistic. a larger airline has 100's of pilots and can not simply wait for bad weather to suddenly conduct their training. the training is therefore done in a flight simulator....easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..spa.lvo.120 flight crew training and qualifications..the operator shall ensure that, prior to conducting an lvo.. a each flight crew member.. 1 complies with the training and checking requirements prescribed in the operations manual, including flight simulation training device fstd training, in operating to the limiting values of rvr/vis visibility and dh specific to the operation and the aircraft type... 2 is qualified in accordance with the standards prescribed in the operations manual... b the training and checking is conducted in accordance with a detailed syllabus.
Question 242-18 : A two engine aeroplane has an etops approval for 180 minutes. those 180 minutes are based an the one engine inoperative speed. the departure aerodrome cannot be used as a take off alternate because of meteorological conditions. there are no mel restrictions. what is the maximum allowed flight time ?
120 minutes
Easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..cat.op.mpa.180 selection of aerodromes – aeroplanes... . where it is not possible to use the departure aerodrome as a take off alternate aerodrome due to meteorological or performance reasons, the operator shall select another adequate take off alternate aerodrome that is no further from the departure aerodrome than. .... . for two engined aeroplanes. .... . one hour flying time at an oei cruising speed according to the afm in still air standard conditions based on the actual take off mass. or. . . the etops diversion time approved in accordance with annex v part spa , subpart f, subject to any mel restriction, up to a maximum of two hours, at the oei cruising speed according to the afm in still air standard conditions based on the actual take off mass.. ...for three and four engined aeroplanes, two hours flying time at the oei cruising speed according to the afm in still air standard conditions based on the actual take off mass
Question 242-19 : Consider the european regulations on air operations, as applicable to commercial air transport commanders whose duties require them to operate in either pilot seat and carry out the duties of a co pilot, or commanders required to conduct training or checking duties, shall complete additional ?
An engine failure during take off, a one engine inoperative approach and go around. and a one engine inoperative landing.
Often a captain will be required to operate from the right hand seat. for example... 2 captains flying together no first officer where one is nominated as commander and so the other captain simply flies from the right, or. as a training captain, line training a new skipper and so sitting on the right hand side....to qualify for the right, you must do additional training and checking which basically covers engine failure scenarios on departure, approach, landing and go around as shown fully in the regulation below......easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..oro.fc.235 pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat.. a commanders whose duties require them to operate in either pilot seat and carry out the duties of a co pilot, or commanders required to conduct training or checking duties, shall complete additional training and checking as specified in the operations manual. the check may be conducted together with the operator proficiency check prescribed in oro.fc.230 b... b the additional training and checking shall include at least the following.. 1 an engine failure during take off... 2 a one engine inoperative approach and go around. and.. 3 a one engine inoperative landing.
Question 242-20 : Which equipment is necessary to operate in rvsm airspace..1 two independent altitude measurement systems..2 a gps with altitude reporting system..3 an altitude alerting system..4 an automatic altitude control system..5 a secondary surveillance radar ssr transponder with altitude reporting system ?
1 , 3 , 4 , 5
Easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..spa.rvsm.110 rvsm equipment requirements..aircraft used for operations in rvsm airspace shall be equipped with.. a two independent altitude measurement systems... b an altitude alerting system... c an automatic altitude control system... d a secondary surveillance radar ssr transponder with altitude reporting system that can be connected to the altitude measurement system in use for altitude control.
Question 242-21 : According to oro. 205, when the certified operator or the spo authorisation holder contracts any part of its activity to an organisation that is not itself certified or authorised to carry out such activity, the contracted organisation shall work under the approval of… ?
The operator.
Easa air ops..regulation eu 2019/1384..oro. 205 contracted activities.. a when contracting or purchasing any services or products as a part of its activities, the operator shall ensure all of the following.. 1 that the contracted or purchased services or products comply with the applicable requirements... 2 that any aviation safety hazards associated with contracted or purchased services or products are considered by the operator's management system... b when the certified operator or the spo authorisation holder contracts any part of its activity to an organisation that is not itself certified or authorised in accordance with this part to carry out such activity, the contracted organisation shall work under the approval of the operator. the contracting organisation shall ensure that the competent authority is given access to the contracted organisation, to determine continued compliance with the applicable requirements.
Question 242-22 : When shall an aircraft be equipped with survival equipment ?
When the aircraft is operated over areas in which search would be especially difficult.
Basically, survival equipment is considered for when search and rescue sar could take time to locate the survivors, and so keep them alive in the meantime. such routes would include remote areas, deserts, oceans etc.note emergency locator transmitter = elteasa air ops.regulation eu no 965/2012.cat.ide.a.305 survival equipment a aeroplanes operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped with 1 signalling equipment to make the distress signals.. 2 at least one elt s. and. 3 additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the number of persons on board.
Question 242-23 : A flight with a swedish registered aircraft is performing domestic air services in germany with a french nationality crew and operation on an italian aoc. the state which is defined as the competent authority is… ?
Italy.
Aoc air operator certificate..easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..cat. 100 competent authority..the competent authority shall be the authority designated by the member state in which the operator has its principal place of business...... italian aoc => competent authority italy
Question 242-24 : During a commander's upgrade course, the following must be accomplished.1. engine failure during take off.2. engine failure during cruise.3. one engine inoperative descent.4. one engine inoperative go around and missed approach.5. one engine inoperative landing ?
1, 4 and 5.
Easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..oro.fc.205 command course.. a for aeroplane and helicopter operations, the command course shall include at least the following elements.. 1 training in an fstd, which includes line oriented flight training loft and/or flight training... 2 the operator proficiency check, operating as commander... 3 command responsibilities training........amc1 oro.fc.230 recurrent training and checking.. b recurrent checking recurrent checking should comprise the following... 1 operator proficiency checks.. i aeroplanes where applicable, operator proficiency checks should include the following manoeuvres as pilot flying.. a rejected take off when an fstd is available to represent that specific aeroplane, otherwise touch drills only... b take off with engine failure between v1 and v2 take off safety speed or, if carried out in an aeroplane, at a safe speed above v2... c 3d approach operation to minima with, in the case of multi engine aeroplanes, one engine inoperative... d 2d approach operation to minima... e at least one of the 3d or 2d approach operations should be an rnp apch or rnp ar apch operation... f missed approach on instruments from minima with, in the case of multiengined aeroplanes, one engine inoperative... g landing with one engine inoperative. for single engine aeroplanes a practice forced landing is required.
Question 242-25 : An airline operator has just made significant changes to the continuing airworthiness part of its management system because it is opening up a maintenance facility at a new location. before implementing these changes, the operator shall seek approval from… ?
The competent authority
Approvals' are granted by the competent authority to operators who meet the required standards.an operator can not grant it's own approval which removes the answers of the company management or the safety manager.easa does not issue approvals but instead oversees both authorities and operators.commission regulation eu no 1321/2014.m.1for the purpose of this part, the competent authority shall be.4. for the approval of maintenance programmes i the authority designated by the member state of registry.. ii in the case of commercial air transport, when the member state of the operator is different from the state of registry, the authority agreed by the above two states prior to the approval of the maintenance programme.. iii by derogation from point 4 i , when the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft not used in commercial air transport is managed by a continuing airworthiness management organisation approved in accordance with section a, subpart g, of this annex part m not subject to the oversight of the member state of registry, and only if agreed with the member state of registry prior to the approval of the maintenance programme a the authority designated by the member state responsible for the oversight of the continuing airworthiness management organisation. or. b the agency if the continuing airworthiness management organisation is located in a third country.
Question 242-26 : Which of the following statements is correct for an aeroplane flying from new york to tokyo and passing the north domestic canadian airspace ?
The pilots may expect the vors to be oriented to the true north.
..in canada airspace, northern domestic airspace nda is the area of compass unreliability within which runways and navaids are oriented to true north.
Question 242-27 : The operator is obliged to establish the structure with a compliance monitoring system. the feedback is directed to the… ?
Accountable manager.
Common questions in the ops bank can be covered by... safety manager flight data monitoring, ie the manager implementing safety. accountable manager compliance monitoring, ie the ultimate manager responsible for safety......easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012...oro. 200 management system.. a the operator shall establish, implement and maintain a management system that includes.. 1 clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the operator, including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager... 2 a description of the overall philosophies and principles of the operator with regard to safety, referred to as the safety policy... 3 the identification of aviation safety hazards entailed by the activities of the operator, their evaluation and the management of associated risks, including taking actions to mitigate the risk and verify their effectiveness... 4 maintaining personnel trained and competent to perform their tasks... 5 documentation of all management system key processes, including a process for making personnel aware of their responsibilities and the procedure for amending this documentation... 6 a function to monitor compliance of the operator with the relevant requirements. compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system of findings to the accountable manager to ensure effective implementation of corrective actions as necessary. and.. 7 any additional requirements that are prescribed in the relevant subparts of this annex or other applicable annexes... b the management system shall correspond to the size of the operator and the nature and complexity of its activities, taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in these activities.
Question 242-28 : According to the applicable operational requirements, the operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme, and appoint a post holder responsible for the programme. the responsible for the programme is… ?
Safety manager.
This question has similarities with other questions. be careful to understand exactly what it is asking...... accountable manager holds ultimate responsibility and authority for the safety and compliance of the operator.. safety manager manages the day to day operation and effectiveness of the operator's safety management system sms....here we are asked who would be the post holder responsible for the flight data monitoring fdm programme. this is describing the safety manager. the safety manager is responsible for the day to day running of the sms safety management system, which includes fdm...for a smaller operator non complex this is typically the accountable manager or a line captain. both of these positions offer sufficient relevant experience in operational roles to be an effective safety manager...for a larger operator complex this position would now need a more dedicated specialist due to the size or type of operation. now the operator will need a safety manager and safety review board....easa air ops..regulation eu 2015/1329..oro.aoc.130 flight data monitoring – aeroplanes.. a the operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme, which shall be integrated in its management system, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take off mass of more than 27 000 kg... b the flight data monitoring programme shall be non punitive and contain adequate safeguards to protect the source s of the data....amc1 oro.aoc.130 flight data monitoring – aeroplanes..flight data monitoring fdm programme.. a the safety manager, as defined under amc1 oro. 200 a 1 , should be responsible for the identification and assessment of issues and their transmission to the manager s responsible for the process es concerned. the latter should be responsible for taking appropriate and practicable safety action within a reasonable period of time that reflects the severity of the issue.
Question 242-29 : What must the operator arrange for crew on airport standby duty ?
Accommodation.
Easa air ops.oro.ftl.225 standby and duties at the airport regulationif an operator assigns crew members to standby or to any duty at the airport, the following shall apply in accordance with the certification specifications applicable to the type of operation e the operator shall provide accommodation to the crew member on airport standby
Question 242-30 : To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is ?
Useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxy
Question 242-31 : Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances..1 when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 kt.2 when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 kt.3 when the runway is not clear or dry..the combination ?
1, 2, 3.
.doc 8168. 2.1 noise preferential runways.2.1.1 preferred runway directions for take off and landing, appropriate to the operation, are nominated for noise abatement purposes, the objective being to utilize whenever possible those runways that permit aeroplanes to avoid noise sensitive areas during the initial departure and final approach phases of flight...2.1.2 runways should not normally be selected for preferential use for landing unless they are equipped with suitable glide path guidance, e.g. ils, or a visual approach slope indicator system for operations in visual meteorological conditions...2.1.3 noise abatement should not be the determining factor in runway nomination under the following circumstances..a if the runway surface conditions are adversely affected e.g. by snow, slush, ice or water, mud, rubber, oil or other substances..b for landing in conditions when the ceiling is lower than 150 m 500 ft above aerodrome elevation, or for takeoff and landing when the horizontal visibility is less than 1.9 km 1 nm..c when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 28 km/h 15 kt..d when the tailwind component, including gusts, exceeds 9 km/h 5 kt and..e when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when adverse weather conditions, e.g. thunderstorms, are expected to affect the approach or departure.
Question 242-32 : If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to ?
Put on the mask and goggles.
. 2626
Question 242-33 : Malfunctioning of the automatic pressurization system is indicated by..1 a change in environmental sounds.2 the cabin altitude gauge indicates an abnormal rate of climb.3 the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior of the aircraft decreases..the combination regrouping all the ?
1, 2, 3.
Question 242-34 : The m.e.l. minimum equipment list is produced by ?
The operator.
.the master minimum equipment list mmel is established by the manufacturer.
Question 242-35 : Wind shear and microburst..during a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind. in the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane..1 flies above the intended approach path. 2 flies below the intended approach path.3 has an increasing true airspeed.4 has a ?
1, 3.
Img /com en/com070h 9.jpg..
Question 242-36 : Wind shear and microburst..during a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. in the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane. 1 flies above the intended approach path.2 flies below the intended approach path.3 has an increasing true airspeed.4 has a ?
1, 3.
Img /com en/com070h 9.jpg..
Question 242-37 : A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for.1. a paper fire.2. a hydrocarbon fire.3. a fabric fire.4. an electrical fire.5. a wood fire..the combination regrouping all the correct statements is ?
1, 3, 5.
.class a fire flammable solids any object that might catch ignition and be set on fire requiring the cooling effect of water e.g. material, wood, paper, cushions, etc. it is safe to use any type of extinguishers against such fire whenever water is not available.. class a extinguishers = water...class b fire liquid fire liquid fire involves flammable substances that are usually lighter than water e.g. oil, fuel, paint, kerosene. water and water glycol fire extinguishers should not be used to fight such fire, as water will only help it spread and expand. concentration should be on the exclusion of oxy. class b extinguishers = foam...class c fire electrical fire fire involving electrical equipment is usually the result of a short circuit. it is essential to cut the electrical source of ignition and exclude the oxy.beware of using water against such fire to prevent electric shocks. if there is no other alternative, water glycol extinguishers could be used in short shots.. class c extinguishers = dry chemicals, hafex gas...class d fire metal fire metal fire involves certain combustible metals e.g. magnesium, titanium, potassium, sodium. these metals burn at high temperatures and give off sufficient oxygen to support combustion. they may react violently with water or other chemicals and must be handled with care.. class d extinguishers = sand, dry chemical powder...a water h4o fire extinguisher can be used for a class a fire.
Question 242-38 : The protection time of an anti icing fluid depends on.1. the type and intensity of the showers.2. the ambient temperature.3. the relative humidity.4. the speed of the surface wind.5. the temperature of the aircraft skin.6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature..the combination ?
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Pdf676
Question 242-39 : The anti icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce the holdover time considerably ?
During strong winds or as a result of other aircraft engines jet blast.
.pdf676
Question 242-40 : Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. to counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is ?
Substantial.
~
Exclusive rights reserved. Reproduction prohibited under penalty of prosecution.
