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Question 251-1 : In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations… ? [ Explanation maintenance ]
You descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration
Question 251-2 : An aircraft which experiences an increase of headwind of 20 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect when crossing the microburst to face a windshear of… ?
40 kt.
As you approach the microcurst you will experience a headwind in this case 20 kt head as you fly through the microburst the wind will change and the headwind decreases as you fly immediately under it strong downdrafts will be experienced however the horizontal wind speed will be 0 kt thereafter beyond the centre of the microburst tailwind increases 20 kt tail when crossing the microburst the wind will change from 20 kt headwind to a 20 kt tailwind => 40 kt windshear20 kt. 10 kt. 60 kt.
Question 251-3 : When taking off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed you should take off… ?
Beyond the point where the aircraft`s wheels have touched down.
wake turbulence whenever an airplane generates lift air spills over the wing tips from the high pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above them this flow causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices an aircraft generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take off to touchdown the intensity depends on aircraft weight speed and configuration the greatest wake turbulence danger is produced by large heavy airplanes operating at low speeds high angles of attack and in a clean configuration although wake turbulence settles it persists in the air for several minutes depending on wind conditions in calm winds wing tip vortices separate outwards on each side of the runway in light winds of 3 to 7 knots the vortices can stay in the touchdown area sink into your take off or landing path or drift over a parallel runwaygeneral guides to avoid turbulence when landing behind a large aircraft stay above the large airplane’s glide path and land beyond its touchdown point if a large airplane has just taken off as you approach touch down well before the large aircraft’s lift off point when departing after a large aircraft has landed lift off beyond its touchdown location when taking off behind a large aircraft lift off before the large aircraft’s rotation point and climb out above or upwind of its flight pathIn front of the point where the aircraft`s wheels have touched down. at the point where the aircraft`s wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the runway. at the point where the aircraft`s wheels have touched the ground and on the down wind side of the runway.
Question 251-4 : In addition to informing each state whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft the state of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the… ?
State of registry of the aircraft the state of the operator and icao.
Icao annex 1752 response525 each contracting state in which an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful interference has landed shall notify by the most expeditious means the state of registry of the aircraft and the state of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit by the most expeditious means all other relevant information to a the two above mentioned statesb each state whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuriesc each state whose citizens were detained as hostagesd each contracting state whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft ande the international civil aviation organizationState of registry of the aircraft and the state of the operator only. state of registry of the aircraft and the easa. state of the operator, the easa and icao.
Question 251-5 : According to ops regulations the minimum equipment list of an aircraft is found in the… ?
Operations manual.
The operations manual is normally split into 4 main parts part a general part b type specific part c aerodromes and routes part d trainingpart b contains the actual minimum equipment list mel for the aircraft typepart a contains general instructions on the use of the melthe afm will contain the master mel from the manufacturerRepair manual. aircraft flight manual. maintenance manual.
Question 251-6 : Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed the commander shall… ?
Contact the local ats unit as soon as workload permits.
Easa air opsregulation eu no 9652012cat mpa105 responsibilities of the commander d bird hazards and strikes 1 whenever a potential bird hazard is observed the commander shall inform the air traffic service ats unit as soon as flight crew workload allows 2 whenever an aircraft for which the commander is responsible suffers a bird strike that results in significant damage to the aircraft or the loss or malfunction of any essential service the commander shall submit a written bird strike report after landing to the competent authorityicao by the provisions in icao annex 14 aerodrome design and operations volume i bird strikes are required to be reported at national member state level section 942 of the same annex requires that bird strike reports shall be collected and forwarded to icao for inclusion in the icao bird strike information system ibis database to facilitate this obligation states are expected to take appropriate action to collect data from aircraft and airport operators although the effectiveness of this process varies very widely and geographical bias in the overall data coverage resultsInform other aircraft in the vicinity by radio. inform immediately the bird control unit (bcu) directly by radio. submit a written hazard bird strike report upon arrival and within 48 hours.
Question 251-7 : In vmc a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when… ?
There is no precision system approach or visual approach slope indicator.
Looking at the answer options and comparing them to the regulations below 'it has a tail wind regardless of its magnitude' > incorrect only if the tailwind exceeds 5 kts'cross wind component including gusts is 10 kt or less' > incorrect only if the crosswind exceeds 15 kt'the head wind component including gusts is more than 15 kt' > incorrect no limit for a headwind as this is a desirable wind condition 'there is no precision system approach or visual approach slope indicator' > correct an ils glide slope or vasi papi light systems will enable the pilot to maintain an accurate and proper descent while flying in vmc flying too low on the approach will cause noise problems to the local areaicao doc 8168 section 7 noise abatement 211 preferred runway directions for take off and landing appropriate to the operation are nominated for noise abatement purposes the objective being to utilise whenever possible those runways that permit aeroplanes to avoid noise sensitive areas during the initial departure and final approach phases of flight212 runways should not normally be selected for preferential use for landing unless they are equipped with suitable glide path guidance eg ils or a visual approach slope indicator system for operations in visual meteorological conditions213 noise abatement should not be the determining factor in runway nomination under the following circumstances a if the runway surface conditions are adversely affected eg by snow slush ice or water mud rubber oil or other substances b for landing in conditions when the ceiling is lower than 150 m 500 ft above aerodrome elevation or for take off and landing when the horizontal visibility is less than 19 km 1 nm c when the crosswind component including gusts exceeds 28 kmh 15 kt d when the tailwind component including gusts exceeds 9 kmh 5 kt and e when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when adverse weather conditions eg thunderstorms are expected to affect the approach or departureIt has a tail wind regardless its magnitude the head wind component, including gusts, is more than 15 kt cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less
Question 251-8 : Wind shear is… ?
A large variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and or wind direction over a short distance.
Wind shear is a sudden change in wind direction andor speed over a very short distance we can think of wind shear as a gradient in wind velocity that can be interpreted in the same way as a pressure or temperature gradient wind shear can be broken up into vertical wind shear is defined as change of horizontal wind direction andor speed with height as would be determined by means of two or more anemometers mounted at different heights on a single masthorizontal wind shear is defined as change of horizontal wind direction andor speed with horizontal distance as would be determined by two or more anemometers mounted at the same height along a runwayup drafts and down draftslooking at the answer options a variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and or wind direction over a large distance > incorrect it is not a large distance as a wind change over thousands of miles is irrelevanta large variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and or wind direction over a short distance > correct as defined abovea variation only in vertical wind velocity over a short distance > incorrect that word 'only'a variation only in horizontal wind velocity over a short distance > incorrect that word 'only' againA variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance. a variation only in vertical wind velocity over a short distance. a variation only in horizontal wind velocity over a short distance.
Question 251-9 : Regarding wake turbulence what is the icao minimum non radar separation time for a light aircraft behind a medium or heavy aeroplane on approach to the same runway ?
3 minutes.
Icao doc 444458 time based wake turbulence longitudinal separation minima582 arriving aircraft 5821 except as provided for in 5811 a and b the following separation minima shall be applied58211 the following minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft a medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft — 2 minutesb light aircraft behind a heavy or medium aircraft — 3 minutes2 minutes 4 minutes 5 minutes
Question 251-10 : According to icao doc 4444 a wake turbulence non radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied… ?
To light aircraft taking off behind a medium aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m.
Icao doc 4444 583 departing aircraft5832 a separation minimum of 3 minutes shall be applied between a light or medium aircraft when taking off behind a heavy aircraft or a light aircraft when taking off behind a medium aircraft from a an intermediate part of the same runway or b an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m 2500 ft Between a light aircraft and a super aircraft making a missed approach and the light aircraft utilising an opposite-direction runway for take-off. to a departing medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold. to an arriving light aircraft following a medium aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross.
Question 251-11 : According to icao annex 17 following an unlawful interference who shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft until their journey can be continued ?
The contracting state where the aircraft is located.
In this question the use of 'until their journey can be continued' indicates that the aircraft has landed so imagine an airliner flying from italy to the uk while in french airspace there is an act of unlawful interference and the aircraft lands in france the french are responsible for the passengers and crew while on their territoryicao annex 17 52 response521 each contracting state shall take appropriate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference while on the ground in the territory of the contracting state until their journey can be continuedThe aircraft`s operator. easa. the commander of the aircraft.
Question 251-12 : A braking action of 025 and below reported on a snowtam is… ?
Poor.
Icao annex 15 appendix 2 snowtam measured or estimated surface calculated coeff friction 040 and above good brakes 5 039 036 medium good brakes 4 035 030 medium brakes 3 029 026 medium poor brakes 2 025 and below poor brakes 1 9 unreliable unreliable brakes 9 icao annex 15 appendix 2 snowtam item h friction measurements on each third of the runway and friction measuring deviceMedium unreliable good
Question 251-13 : According to icao doc 4444 a wake turbulence non radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to… ?
Medium aircraft landing behind a heavy aircraft.
Icao doc 4444 582 arriving aircraft5821 except as provided for in 5811 a and b the following separation minima shall be applied 58211 the following minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft a medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft — 2 minutes b light aircraft behind a heavy or medium aircraft — 3 minutesLight aircraft taking-off behind a medium aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway. light aircraft landing behind a medium aircraft. medium aircraft taking-off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m.
Question 251-14 : According to icao doc 4444 a wake turbulence non radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to… ?
Light aircraft landing behind a medium aircraft.
Icao doc 4444 582 arriving aircraft5821 except as provided for in 5811 a and b the following separation minima shall be applied 58211 the following minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft a medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft — 2 minutes b light aircraft behind a heavy or medium aircraft — 3 minutesLight aircraft taking-off behind a medium aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway. medium aircraft landing behind a heavy aircraft. light aircraft taking-off behind a medium aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway).
Question 251-15 : When an aircraft has come to a complete stop after ditching crew members should immediately… ?
Initiate evacuation.
In a ditching situation more than one impact should be expected evacuation should not be initiated until the aircraft has come to a complete stop once the aircraft comes to a halt evacuation should be immediately initiated as time can be short before the aircraft starts to sinkTry contacting aircraft in the vicinity. tell passengers to inflate their life jackets. use pyrotechnics to attract attention.
Question 251-16 : Under certain conditions the pilot can take off without following the reduced power take off procedure which of the following is one such condition ?
Wind shear has been reported.
Icao doc 8168 noise preferential runways and routes 21 noise preferential runways211 preferred runway directions for take off and landing appropriate to the operation are nominated for noise abatement puposes the objective being to utilize whenever possible those rnnways that permit aeroplanes to avoid noise sensitive areas during the initial departure and final approach phases of flight212 runways should not normally he selected for preferential use for landing unless they are equipped with suitable glide path guidance eg ils or a visual approach slope indicator system for operations in visual meteorological conditions213 noise abatement should not be the determining factor in runway nomination under the following circumstances a if the runway surface conditions are adversely affected eg by snow slush ice or water mud rubber oil or other substances b for landing in conditions when the ceiling is lower than 150 m 500 ft above aerodrome elevation or for takeoff and landing when the horizontal visibility is less than 19 km 1 nm c when the crosswind component including gusts exceeds 28 kmh 15 kt d when the tailwind component including gusts exceeds 9 kmh 5 kt and e when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when adverse weather conditions eg thunderstorms are expected to affect the approach or departureHorizontal visibility is 3000 m. the crosswind component is 13 knots. the tailwind component is 3 knots.
Question 251-17 : What is the expected braking action on the runway when the friction coefficient is 04 or higher ?
Good.
use of single figures for example 333 indicate an estimated surface friction for each runway third from pilot reports etcuse of two figures for example 404040 indicate a measured surface friction this is done by the airport authority using a specialised device dragged behind a truck such as a mu meterwhen the friction coefficient is 040 or higher then this represents goodPoor. medium to good. medium to poor.
Question 251-18 : Which of the following elements may be an indication to the pilot of white out when operating in snow 1 single visual reference 2 recirculating snow 3 merging of sky horizon and ground 4 loss of orientation and external visual references ?
2 3 and 4.
Note this is really a helicopter learning objective but has been reported in the aeroplane exam please let us know if you see this question in your exam thank youwhiteoutwhite sky and white ground no shadow and no horizon set you up for cfitwhiteout is a weather condition that causes disorientation and low visibility by snow overcast cloud and fog in such situation there are no shadows no horizon or clouds and all depth of field and orientation are lost a whiteout situation is severe in that there aren't any visual references blowing snow may lead to the whiteout due to reduced visibility1, 3 and 4. 1, 2 and 3. 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Question 251-19 : A pilot flies for an aoc holder operating complex motor powered aircraft in which document will heshe find type related instructions and procedures for the aircraft flown ?
Operations manual part b.
Easa air opsregulation eu 20181975oromlr101 operations manual – structure for commercial air transportexcept for operations with single engined propeller driven aeroplanes with an mopsc of 5 or less or single engined non complex helicopters with an mopsc of 5 or less taking off and landing at the same aerodrome or operating site under vfr by day the main structure of the om shall be as follows a part a generalbasic comprising all non type related operational policies instructions and procedures b part b aircraft operating matters comprising all type related instructions and procedures taking into account differences between typesclasses variants or individual aircraft used by the operator c part c commercial air transport operations comprising routerolearea and aerodrome operating site instructions and information d part d training comprising all training instructions for personnel required for a safe operationAircraft user manual part b. aircraft operating manual part a. aircraft flight manual part a.
Question 251-20 : According to ops regulations what does anti icing in the case of ground procedures mean ?
A procedure that provides protection against the formation of frost or ice and accumulation of snow on treated surfaces of the aircraft for a limited period of time.
Easa air opsannex i definitions for terms used in annexes ii to viii 10 anti icing in the case of ground procedures means a procedure that provides protection against the formation of frost or ice and accumulation of snow on treated surfaces of the aircraft for a limited period of time hold over time 36 de icing in the case of ground procedures means a procedure by which frost ice snow or slush is removed from an aircraft in order to provide uncontaminated surfacesA procedure that provides protection against the formation of frost or ice and accumulation of snow on treated surfaces of the aircraft for an unlimited period of time. a procedure by which frost, ice, snow or slush is removed from an aircraft in order to provide uncontaminated surfaces. the first step of a two-step procedure by which frost, ice, snow or slush is removed from an aircraft in order to provide uncontaminated surfaces.
Question 251-21 : According to ops regulations what does de icing in the case of ground procedures mean ?
A procedure by which frost ice snow or slush is removed from an aircraft in order to provide uncontaminated surfaces.
Easa air opsannex i definitions for terms used in annexes ii to viii 10 'anti icing' in the case of ground procedures means a procedure that provides protection against the formation of frost or ice and accumulation of snow on treated surfaces of the aircraft for a limited period of time hold over time 36 'de icing' in the case of ground procedures means a procedure by which frost ice snow or slush is removed from an aircraft in order to provide uncontaminated surfacesThe second step of a two-step procedure by which frost, ice, snow or slush is removed from an aircraft in order to provide uncontaminated surfaces. a procedure that provides protection against the formation of frost or ice and accumulation of snow on treated surfaces of the aircraft for a limited period of time. a procedure that provides protection against the formation of frost or ice and accumulation of snow on treated surfaces of the aircraft for an unlimited period of time.
Question 251-22 : An aeroplane is flying from thessalonikimakedonia lgts to kavalamegas alexandros lgkv airports within greece which of the following documents publications must the commander check in order to be familiar with any published noise abatement departure procedures nadp for the departure aerodrome ?
Section lgts ad 221 of the greek aip.
Icao annex 15appendix 1contents of the aeronautical information publication aip ad 2 aerodromes**** ad 221 noise abatement procedures detailed description of noise abatement procedures established at the aerodromeNotam for lgts aerodrome. icao doc 8168 (volume i, flight procedures). icao doc 7030 (regional supplementary procedures).
Question 251-23 : Which of the following statements regarding the cooling of hot brakes and wheel fires is correct ?
Rapid cooling of a hot wheel may cause an explosive failure of the wheel.
Brake system overheat conditiona braking system works by converting the kinetic energy of a moving aircraft into heat to prevent damage to the tyres and undercarriage structure the heat energy must be dissipated rapidly into the surrounding air if this does not happen and the amount of heat generated becomes excessive as can be the case after an aborted take off or following a landing at an excessive mass andor speed the tyres can overheat and burst consequently brake andor wheel fires are likely to occur to prevent tyres bursting due to overheating wheels are fitted with fusible plugs which melt at a preset temperature this allows the tyre to deflate at a steady controlled rate the usual strategies for cooling hot brakes include giving consideration to an appropriate parking area ie use a remote location away from other aircraft buildings parking into the wind chocking the nose wheel and releasing the parking brake the brake temperatures may be so high that the brakes may weld together and consequently do not release even after the brakes cool down and using brake fans when available should a fire develop more direct intervention is required responders must exercise caution when approaching burning or overheated wheel assemblies as so long as the wheels remain inflated there is a risk of explosive failure of the wheel assembly laterally any approach to the wheel should therefore be conducted from the front or backwhen extinguishing a wheel fire sand or dry powder should be used to cover the fire and cut the oxygen supply some extinguishers will cool the landing gear too quickly and the wheel may explodeAfter the deflation of tyres due to fusible plugs, only dry chemical agents can be used safely. carbon dioxide is the best extinguishing agent for brake fires. water fog must not be used to cool hot brakes.
Question 251-24 : One of the correct actions to take in the case of overheated brakes after landing or an aborted take off is to… ?
Consider where to park the aircraft as regards proximity to other aircraft buildings etc.
Brake system overheat conditiona braking system works by converting the kinetic energy of a moving aircraft into heat to prevent damage to the tyres and undercarriage structure the heat energy must be dissipated rapidly into the surrounding air if this does not happen and the amount of heat generated becomes excessive as can be the case after an aborted take off or following a landing at an excessive mass andor speed the tyres can overheat and burst consequently brake andor wheel fires are likely to occur to prevent tyres bursting due to overheating wheels are fitted with fusible plugs which melt at a preset temperature this allows the tyre to deflate at a steady controlled rate the usual strategies for cooling hot brakes include giving consideration to an appropriate parking area ie use a remote location away from other aircraft buildings parking into the wind chocking the nose wheel and releasing the parking brake the brake temperatures may be so high that the brakes may weld together and consequently do not release even after the brakes cool down and using brake fans when available should a fire develop more direct intervention is required responders must exercise caution when approaching burning or overheated wheel assemblies as so long as the wheels remain inflated there is a risk of explosive failure of the wheel assembly laterally any approach to the wheel should therefore be conducted from the front or backwhen extinguishing a wheel fire sand or dry powder should be used to cover the fire and cut the oxygen supply some extinguishers will cool the landing gear too quickly and the wheel may explodePour water on the heated brakes to cool them. keep the aeroplane on the runway for as long as possible. set the parking brake and approach the main landing gear from the sides.
Question 251-25 : Which of the following is a possible immediate physiological effect of an explosive decompression in an extreme case ?
Ruptured ear drums.
Cabin decompressionalthough cabin pressurization systems are highly reliable malfunctions do occur with system components or aircraft structures of the malfunctions that can occur cabin decompression is the most serious the loss of pressurization can be slow in case of a small air leak while a rapid or explosive decompression occurs suddenly usually within a few secondsone of the first physiological indications of a slow decompression may be ear discomfort or ‘popping’ joint pain or stomach pain due to gas expansion the most immediate physiological indications of a rapid decompression include rapid hypoxia symptoms and in severe cases the eardrum can rupture causing bleeding or leaking of fluid from the earA marked reduction in night vision. minor ear discomfort. a tingling sensation in the hands and feet.
Question 251-26 : An aircraft is descending in conditions of little or no wind upon contact with the ground the trailing vortices travel horizontally away from each other at a height approximately equal to what proportion of the generating aircraft`s wing span ?
Half the wing span.
in a question that appears to be borrowed from the pof bank remember it is half the wing span just as is ground effect icao doc 9426 33 minimizing the effect of wake turbulence3336 ground effect becomes an important factor when considering the movement and decay of the vortices the ground acts as a plane of reflection as the trailing vortices descend toward the ground their vertical velocity decreases and with no or little wind they begin to travel horizontally over the ground away from each other at a height approximately half the wing span of the generating aircraftOne third of the wing span. one and a half wing spans. a quarter of the wing span.
Question 251-27 : Which option correctly lists the wind conditions that can be dangerous as regards wake turbulence by either keeping the wake turbulence on the runway or causing it to drift to another runway ?
Calm wind light cross wind or light tail wind.
Wake turbulencewhenever an airplane generates lift air spills over the wing tips from the high pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above them this flow causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices an aircraft generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take off to touchdownthe intensity depends on aircraft weight speed and configuration the greatest wake turbulence danger is produced by large heavy airplanes operating at low speeds high angles of attack and in a clean configurationalthough wake turbulence settles it persists in the air for several minutes depending on wind conditions in light winds of 3 to 7 knots the vortices can stay in the touchdown area sink into your take off or landing path or drift over a parallel runway calm wind conditions are most dangerous as wake turbulence stagnates on the runway and is not blown to one sidegeneral guides to avoid turbulence when landing behind a large aircraft stay above the large airplane’s glide path and land beyond its touchdown pointif a large airplane has just taken off as you approach touch down well before the large aircraft’s lift off pointwhen departing after a large aircraft has landed lift off beyond its touchdown locationwhen taking off behind a large aircraft lift off before the large aircraft’s rotation point and climb out above or upwind of its flight pathStrong wind, strong cross wind, or strong tail wind. strong wind, light cross wind, or light tail wind. calm wind, strong cross wind, or light tail wind.
Question 251-28 : When viewed from behind an aeroplane`s vortex circulation is… ?
Outward upward and around the wing tips.
A difficult question as there are 2 possible scenarios being asked 1 the formation of the vortex outward along the span under the wing then upwards around the wingtip towards the lower pressure above the wing2 the path of the vortices once formed outwards and downwards from the wing tips descending typically 1000 ft over 3 minutes before dissipatingfeedback over several years confirms the examiner is asking about the first scenario the formation of the vorticeswake turbulencewhenever an airplane generates lift air spills over the wing tips from the high pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above them this flow causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices an aircraft generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take off to touchdown the intensity depends on aircraft weight speed and configuration the greatest wake turbulence danger is produced by large heavy airplanes operating at low speeds high angles of attack and in a clean configuration although wake turbulence settles it persists in the air for several minutes depending on wind conditions in calm winds wing tip vortices separate outwards on each side of the runway in light winds of 3 to 7 knots the vortices can stay in the touchdown area sink into your take off or landing path or drift over a parallel runwaygeneral guides to avoid turbulence when landing behind a large aircraft stay above the large airplane’s glide path and land beyond its touchdown pointif a large airplane has just taken off as you approach touch down well before the large aircraft’s lift off pointwhen departing after a large aircraft has landed lift off beyond its touchdown locationwhen taking off behind a large aircraft lift off before the large aircraft’s rotation point and climb out above or upwind of its flight pathOutward, upward and then back to the wing root. outward initially, then back along the bottom surface of wing. outward and then downward away from the wing tips.
Question 251-29 : A heavy aircraft is making a missed approach and a light aircraft is using an opposite direction runway for take off what is the minimum separation that should be applied between these two aircraft ?
3 minutes.
Important update please be aware that the separation minimum between aircraft previously set at 2 minutes has been revised to 3 minutes according to amendment 9 to pans atm icao doc 4444 which took effect on 5 november 2020 however we have noted that some caas have not yet adjusted the correct answer for this question accordingly if you happen to encounter this question during your exam we kindly request you to inform us about it your input is highly valuable to us thank you as far as we currently know the following authorities are considering the following options to be correct authorityreported answerslovakia3 minutesuk2 minutespoland3 minutesaustria3 minuteshungary3 minutesspain3 minutesicao doc 4444chapter 5 separation methods and minima585 opposite directionwhen using wake turbulence categories contained in chapter 4 4911 for a heavier aircraft making a low or a missed approach and when the lighter aircraft is a using an opposite direction runway for take off orb landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by less than 760 m 2500 ft the following minimum separations shall be used 1 between a heavy aircraft and a super aircraft 3 minutes2 between a light or medium aircraft and a super aircraft 4 minutes3 between a light or medium aircraft and a heavy aircraft 3 minutes4 minutes 5 minutes 2 minutes
Question 251-30 : Who is responsible for establishing training programmes that are intended to minimise opportunities for unlawful interference with flights ?
The operator.
Icao annex 17chapter 13 security134 training programmes1341 the operator shall establish and maintain an approved security training programme which ensures crew members act in the most appropriate manner to minimize the consequences of acts of unlawful interference as a minimum this programme shall include the following elements a determination of the seriousness of any occurrenceb crew communication and coordinationc appropriate self defence responsesd use of non lethal protective devices assigned to crew members whose use is authorized by the state of the operatore understanding of behaviour of terrorists so as to facilitate the ability of crew members to cope with hijacker behaviour and passengers responsesf live situational training exercises regarding various threat conditionsg flight crew compartment procedures to protect the aeroplane andh aeroplane search procedures and guidance on least risk bomb locations where practicable1342 the operator shall establish and maintain a training programme to acquaint appropriate employees with preventive measures and techniques in relation to passengers baggage cargo mail equipment stores and supplies intended for carriage on an aeroplane so that they contribute to the prevention of acts of sabotage or other forms of unlawful interferenceEasa the operator`s caa (competent authority) icao
Question 251-31 : In accordance with the 'clean aircraft concept' which of the following conditions is acceptable for take off ?
Thin hoar frost on the fuselage.
Icao doc 9640chapter 2 the clean aircraft concept cac 23 during conditions conductive to aeroplane icing during operations take off must not be attempted when ice snow slush or frost is present or adhering to the wings propellers control surfaces engine inlets or other critical surfaces based on the above the least critical and most correct option is a thin hoar frost on the fuselage => the only option which is not a control surfacewingsSnow on low-speed ailerons. semi-frozen slush on the elevator. frost covering up to a maximum of 80% of the wings.
Question 251-32 : In the event of an engine exhaust pipe fire while on the ground the pilot should abort the start or continue with the shutdown and… ?
Carry out a dry crank of the engine.
A dry cranking cycle or dry motoring will blow unburnt or burning fuel in the enginetailpipe out of the back end and prevent damage in the case of a tailpipe fire simply dry cranking is turning the engine on the starter without introducing fuel hence the term 'dry' by cutting the mixture and keep starting the engine will make sure that all the fuel in the engine is consumedCarry out a damp crank of the engine. pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engine fire-extinguishers. fight the fire with a water fire-extinguisher.
Question 251-33 : Which of the following actions would be the most appropriate if microbursts are forecast and observed immediately prior to take off ?
Delay the take off.
Microbursts are short lived with peak winds lasting only 5 minutes or less if they're caused by a single cell storm you can often delay your take off divert or delay your arrival until the storm is clear if you see one wait it out flying through or landing in the face of a microburst is simply the worst option if microbursts are observed prior to take off => delay the take off if microbursts are observed prior to the approach => hold until conditions improve if microbursts are observed during the approach => the approach speed should be increased the landing gear should remain extended and the flaps deployedReduce the take-off speed during take-off and increase the climb-out gradient. increase the climb-out gradient. increase the take-off speed during take-off.
Question 251-34 : When inadvertently flying into a microburst the flight crew initially experiences a headwind of 30 kt what horizontal wind component would be most likely under the centre of the microburst ?
0 kt.
As you approach the microcurst you will experience a headwind in this case 30 kt head as you fly through the microburst the wind will change and the headwind decreases as you fly immediately under it strong downdrafts will be experienced however the horizontal wind speed will be 0 kt thereafter beyond the centre of the microburst tailwind increases 30 kt tail 15 kt 30 kt 60 kt
Question 251-35 : The primary objective of each contracting state as regards safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation is the safety of which of the following 1 passengers 2 crew 3 the aircraft 4 ground personnel 5 the general public 6 aerodrome buildings ?
1 2 4 and 5.
Icao annex 17 chapter 2 general principles 21 objectives211 each contracting state shall have its primary objective the safety of passengers crew ground personnel and the general public in all matters related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation212 each contracting state shall establish an organization and develop and implement regulations practices and procedures to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference taking into account the safety regularity and efficiency of flights213 each contracting state shall ensure that such an organization and such regulations practices and procedures a protect the safety of passengers crew ground personnel and the general public in all matter related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation andb are capable of responding rapidly to meet any increased security threat214 each contracting state shall ensure appropriate protection of sensitive aviation security information215 recommendation each contracting state should employ security equipment where appropriate to the extent operationally technically and financially practicable to achieve civil aviation security objectives2, 3, 5, and 6 1, 4, 5, and 6 1, 2, 3, and 4
Question 251-36 : Following an act of unlawful interference who shall without delay submit a report of such an act to the relevant authority ?
The pilot in command.
Easa air opsregulation eu 20181975spo 107 pilot in command responsibilities and authority f the pilot in command shall submit a report of an act of unlawful interference without delay to the competent authority and shall inform the designated local authorityThe atc unit most recently responsibility for the aircraft. the operator. any member of the flight crew.
Question 251-37 : Which of the following may force an aircraft in flight into a ditching situation ?
A smoke fire or fumes situation that becomes uncontrollable.
Looking at the answer options the loss of cabin pressurisation when flying above 18 000 feet > incorrect this situation would merit a rapid descent down to 10000 feet or msa but would not necessarily require an immediate landing onto water the best option after the descent would be to continue to land at a suitable airfieldan engine failure on a two engined aircraft > incorrect if one engine fails then one remains with which to continue to a suitable airfieldthe discovery of a suspect device on board believed to be a bomb > incorrect this scenario may mean you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration as seen in question 706437 at this stage though continuing to a suitable airfield to land is a better option than to ditcha smoke fire or fumes situation that becomes uncontrollable > correct the key word here is 'uncontrollable' imagine driving a car with an uncontrollable fire you would stop and get out as soon as possible same instinct in an aircraft you need to ditch and get everyone out and in the life raftsditchingditching an aircraft into the sea a river or a lake is a manoeuvre that by definition cannot be practiced and may be extremely hazardous it is only contemplated when no other realistic option remains in an emergency it may be because there is a growing fire onboard andor it is not possible to reach a runway or succeed with an approach to those runways within reach and the situation does not favour or even allow an attempt at an off airport forced landingthe following is a list of generally accepted considerations and techniques for ditching power on if there is a choice in the matter power on is preferable to power off for ditching use of power allows more control of both the rate of descent and point at which touchdown is madereduce aircraft weight a lighter aircraft allows a lower approach speed and will probably remain afloat higher in the water and for longer thus facilitating occupant evacuation burning off or dumping fuel also has the advantage of increasing buoyancy in some aircraft types by creating a larger air mass held within the fuel tanksconfiguration gear up is the optimum configuration for ditching most manufacturers recommend the maximum deployment of available slatsflaps is desirable to minimise approach speedin ideal conditions smooth water or very long swells land into the wind this will ensure the minimum possible touchdown speed and help minimise impact damage where the swell is more marked it may be advisable to ditch along the swell accepting a crosswind component and the higher touchdown speed thus minimising the potential for nosing into the face of the rising swell the best touchdown point is on the top of the swell with the second best on the back of the swell aim to remain well clear of the advancing face of the swellThe loss of cabin pressurisation when flying above 18 000 feet. the discovery of a suspect device on board believed to be a bomb. an engine failure on a two-engined aircraft.
Question 251-38 : Which of the following reasons is most likely to force a twin jet aeroplane to perform an emergency landing ?
Multiple bird strikes during the take off roll that cause an engine failure and erratic operation of the remaining engine.
Looking at the answers 'total loss of one of the three available hydraulic systems on an aircraft with flight controls that are hydraulically powered' > incorrect only one of three hydraulic systems has failed this would lead the crew into the abnormal check list but at this stage seems unlikely to require an emergency landing the aircraft would operate normally on the remaining two systems'an in flight fire in the forward galley that has been positively identified as extinguished' > incorrect an in flight fire would be an interesting answer here but this option then states that the fire is now extinguished'a total loss of the automatic pressurisation system just after take off requiring manual intervention by the crew' > incorrect although the automatic system has failed the crew have identified the issue and have regained control through manual intervention there is no need for an emergency landing at this time'multiple bird strikes during the take off roll that cause an engine failure and erratic operation of the remaining engine' > correct not a perfect answer as there is no mention of when the bird strikes occurred in relation to v1 however the question asks about an emergency landing so an assumption could be made that the examiner is thinking after v1 besides all the other answers are a lot weakertypes of emergency landingsthe different types of emergency landings are defined as follows forced landing—an immediate landing on or off an airport necessitated by the inability to continue further flight a typical example of which is an airplane forced down by engine failureprecautionary landing—a premeditated landing on or off an airport when further flight is possible but inadvisable a precautionary landing differs from the forced landing in the availability of power and aircraft systems it is generally less hazardous than a forced landing because the pilot has more time for terrain selection and the planning of the approach in addition the pilot can use power to compensate for errors in judgment or technique the landing site will be at the earliest opportunityexamples of conditions that may call for a precautionary landing include deteriorating weather being lost fuel shortage and gradually developing engine troubleditching—a forced or precautionary landing on waterTotal loss of one of the three available hydraulic systems, on an aircraft with flight controls that are hydraulically powered. a total loss of the automatic pressurisation system just after take-off requiring manual intervention by the crew. an in-flight fire in the forward galley that has been positively identified as extinguished.
Question 251-39 : Following an emergency landing the commander of a flight should… ?
Determine if an immediate evacuation is necessary or if the aircraft can safely taxi off the runway.
The commander’s decision to initiate an evacuationthe decision by the aeroplane crew to conduct an emergency evacuation and the timing of an evacuation command is of critical importance any delay could prove fatal the commander will usually make the decision to evacuate taking into consideration all known factors that will enable passengers and crew to leave the aeroplane in a rapid and safe manner once the flight crew has given the command to ‘evacuate’ the cabin crew will initiate the evacuation taking into account any external hazards however there will be scenarios when an immediate emergency evacuation might not be the best option and the commander may determine that passengers and crew are safer inside the aeroplane rather than ordering an evacuation using the evacuation slides in any evacuation there is always potential for injury to passengers and crewnote contradicting feedback has been received on the potential correct option if you come across this question in your official exam feedback would be highly appreciatedWithout delay safely taxi off the runway and ask for further assistance from rescue and fire fighting services. command an immediate evacuation advising crew and passengers to use all available aircraft exits. without delay safely taxi off the runway and then command an immediate evacuation.
Question 251-40 : What special considerations are there when transporting packages containing dangerous goods which might react dangerously with one another these packages must… ?
Not be stowed next to each other.
Icao annex 1887 separation and segregation871 packages containing dangerous goods which might react dangerously one with another shall not be stowed on an aircraft next to each other or in a position that would allow interaction between them in the event of leakage872 packages of toxic and infectious shall be stowed on an aircraft in accordance with the provisions of the technical instructions873 packages of radioactive materials shall be stowed on an aircraft so that they are separated from persons live animals and undelevoped film in accordance with the provisions in the technical instructionsBe transported on different aircraft. not be stowed in the same compartment. be stowed in a manned compartment.
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