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Question 238-1 : In order to minimise the delay to departure it has been decided to reduce the turnaround time by boarding passengers while the aeroplane is being refuelled with jet a1. provided this is approved at the airport, the following are correct regarding the procedure that must be in place..1. all doors ? [ Formation assignment ]
2, 3 and 5.
Looking at the answer options 1. all doors must be open > incorrect. the regulation states that 'the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas, if applicable, should be kept clear at doors where stairs are not in position for use in the event of evacuation'. having all the doors open is not required though.2. communications must be established between the ground crew supervising the refuelling and the qualified personnel on board > correct. in the event of a problem with the fuelling, this communication allows the personnel on board to initiate an evacuation etc as needed.3. crew, passengers and personnel should be warned that refuelling is taking place > correct. the cabin crew will inform the passengers of current fuelling from time to time as boarding takes place.4. 'no smoking' signs and 'fasten seat belt' signs must both be on > incorrect. fasten seat belt will be off, to allow for a speedier evacuation.5. the minimum cabin crew complement must be on board > correct. the cabin crew are in position to effect an evacuation.easa air ops.amc1 ncc.op.155 refuelling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking.operational procedures — aeroplanes c operational procedures should specify that at least the following precautions are taken 1 one qualified person should remain at a specified location during fuelling operations with passengers on board. this qualified person should be capable of handling emergency procedures concerning fire protection and fire fighting, handling communications and initiating and directing an evacuation.. 2 two way communication should be established and should remain available by the aeroplane’s inter communication system or other suitable means between the ground crew supervising the refuelling and the qualified personnel on board the aeroplane. the involved personnel should remain within easy reach of the system of communication.. 3 crew members, personnel and passengers should be warned that refuelling will take place.. 4 ‘fasten seat belts’ signs should be off.. 5 ‘no smoking’ signs should be on, together with interior lighting to enable emergency exits to be identified.. 6 passengers should be instructed to unfasten their seat belts and refrain from smoking.. 7 the minimum required number of cabin crew should be on board and be prepared for an immediate emergency evacuation.. 8 if the presence of fuel vapour is detected inside the aeroplane, or any other hazard arises during refuelling, fuelling should be stopped immediately.. 9 the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas, if applicable, should be kept clear at doors where stairs are not in position for use in the event of evacuation. and. 10 provision should be made for a safe and rapid evacuation.
Question 238-2 : Icao annex 6 describes the content associated with the completion of a maintenance release. the purpose of the maintenance release for an aircraft is… ?
To confirm that any maintenance work conducted on an aircraft has been completed satisfactorily in accordance with approved data and procedures.
This is the typical sequence of events... the pilot finds a defect on the aircraft. they enter the details into the technical log.. the relevant work is done to fix or replace the broken part.. the maintenance release document is signed by the engineer to confirm that the work is complete and inspected.. the pilot now counter signs the maintenance release to accept the aircraft back into service....looking at the answers..'it is a document confirming that the daily check has been completed by a qualified engineer, that the aircraft is free from technical faults, and is released for service' > incorrect. the daily check is noted in the technical log, not the maintenance release. also, the aircraft is not necessarily free of all defects. there could be other defects being carried under the mel...'the maintenance release procedure confirms that the aircraft is prepared and safe for maintenance to be conducted on the airframe and / or on board systems' > incorrect. the maintenance release confirms completion of the work done, not preparation for the work to be done...'to confirm that any maintenance work conducted on an aircraft has been completed satisfactorily in accordance with approved data and procedures' > correct. as discussed above...'it is a document that is used by the pilots to prepare an aircraft prior to conducting a flight test following a maintenance procedure' > incorrect. preparing for a flight test is another matter, well outside the scope of these learning objectives....icao annex 6..maintenance release. a document which contains a certification confirming that the maintenance work to which it relates has been completed in a satisfactory manner, either in accordance with the approved data and the procedures described in the maintenance organization’s procedures manual or under an equivalent system...chapter 8 aeroplane maintenance..8.8 maintenance release..8.8.1 a maintenance release shall be completed and signed to certify that the maintenance work performed has been completed satisfactorily and in accordance with approved data and the procedures described in the maintenance organization’s procedures manual...8.8.2 a maintenance release shall contain a certification including..a basic details of the maintenance carried out including detailed reference of the approved data used...b the date such maintenance was completed...c when applicable, the identity of the approved maintenance organisation. and..d the identity of the person or persons signing the release.
Question 238-3 : An aircraft is approaching its destination and the landing is planned to take place within 30 minutes. the flight crew have 1 hour left until they reach their maximum daily flight duty period fdp. suddenly the commander receives a message from the operator asking him/her to divert to another ?
Yes, the commander may increase the daily fdp if unforeseen circumstances arise, in consultation with the crew.
Easa air ops..oro.ftl.205 flight duty period fdp.. f unforeseen circumstances in flight operations — commander’s discretion.. 1 the conditions to modify the limits on flight duty, duty and rest periods by the commander in the case of unforeseen circumstances in flight operations, which start at or after the reporting time, shall comply with the following.. i the maximum daily fdp which results after applying points b and e of point oro.ftl.205 or point oro.ftl.220 may not be increased by more than 2 hours unless the flight crew has been augmented, in which case the maximum flight duty period may be increased by not more than 3 hours... ii if on the final sector within an fdp the allowed increase is exceeded because of unforeseen circumstances after take off, the flight may continue to the planned destination or alternate aerodrome. and.. iii the rest period following the fdp may be reduced but can never be less than 10 hours... 2 in case of unforeseen circumstances which could lead to severe fatigue, the commander shall reduce the actual flight duty period and/or increase the rest period in order to eliminate any detrimental effect on flight safety... 3 the commander shall consult all crew members on their alertness levels before deciding the modifications under subparagraphs 1 and 2.
Question 238-4 : An aircraft is flying on route t9 and one of its two fmss used for lrns fails. what can the aircraft do ?
It can continue on t9 as only one lrns is required.
North atlantic operations and airspace manual — chapter 1..1.4 routes for use by aircraft not equipped with two lrns..routes for aircraft with only one lrns..1.4.1 a number of special routes have been developed for aircraft equipped with only one lrns and carrying normal short range navigation equipment vor, dme, adf , which require to cross the north atlantic between europe and north america or vice versa. it should be recognised that these routes are within the nat hla, and that state approval must be obtained prior to flying along them. these routes are also available for interim use by aircraft normally approved for unrestricted nat hla operations that have suffered a partial loss of navigation capability and have only a single remaining functional lrns. detailed descriptions of the special routes known as ‘blue spruce routes’ are included in chapter 3 of this document. other routes also exist within the nat hla that may be flown by aircraft equipped with only a single functioning lrns. these include routings between the azores and the portuguese mainland and/or the madeira archipelago and also routes between northern europe and spain/canaries/lisbon fir to the east of longitude 009° 01' w viz.t9. other routes available for single lrns use are also established in the nat hla, including a route between iceland and the east coast of greenland and two routes between kook islands on the west coast of greenland and canada....note..1 lrns => t9..2 lrns => t13 and t16
Question 238-5 : The contingency procedure for aircraft experiencing equipment failure in the nat hla is… ?
Turn left or right by 30° from the cleared route or track..establish a 5 nm offset from the centre line of the track or route,.parallel track.consider descending or climbing 500 ft from the cleared level if below fl410.
The key word in the question is 'contingency'. this means changing your routing without an atc clearance...imagine being on one of many nat parallel tracks, with aircraft stacked 1000 ft apart vertically above and below you. if you need to divert, then doing so safely will require obtaining a degree of separation from surrounding aircraft. in this event 1. separate laterally turn left or right by at least 30° until 5 nm off track and then parallel. minimise descent during this phase.2. separate vertically. if you need to descend below nat hla, now descend to fl280. otherwise, if in rvsm airspace then split levels by 500 ft.note an simple way to detect correct and incorrect answers is to remember contingency scenarios climb or descent 500 ftweather avoidance climb or descent 300 ftnorth atlantic operations and airspace manual — chapter 13.13.2 general procedures13.2.1 if an aircraft is unable to continue the flight in accordance with its atc clearance, a revised clearance shall be obtained, whenever possible, prior to initiating any action. if prior clearance cannot be obtained, the following contingency procedures should be employed until a revised clearance is received a leave the cleared route or track by initially turning at least 30 degrees to the right or to the left, in order to intercept and maintain a parallel, same direction track or route offset 9.3 km 5.0 nm. the direction of the turn should be based on one or more of the following 1 aircraft position relative to any organized track or route system,.2 the direction of flights and flight levels allocated on adjacent tracks,.3 the direction to an alternate airport..4 any strategic lateral offset being flown, and.5 terrain clearance
Question 238-6 : According to the european regulations on air operations, an operator shall not operate a turbine propeller powered, or an aeroplane with a maximum certificated take off mass in excess of 5700 kg, or having a maximum operational passenger seating configuration mopsc of more than nine seats, or a ?
Approaching a pre selected altitude.
Easa air opscat.ide.a.140 altitude alerting system a the following aeroplanes shall be equipped with an altitude alerting system 1 turbine propeller powered aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5700 kg or having an mopsc of more than nine. and 2 aeroplanes powered by turbo jet engines. b the altitude alerting system shall be capable of 1 alerting the flight crew when approaching a preselected altitude. and. 2 alerting the flight crew by at least an aural signal, when deviating from a preselected altitude.
Question 238-7 : An aircraft experiences an in flight contingency whilst flying in the nat hla and unable to contact for an amended clearance. what procedure shall the aircraft fly ?
Turn left or right of track by 30° whilst trying to talk to atc. maintain fl if able or minimise climb / descent rate slop traffic. maintain visual and acas watch acas in ra mode. turn on exterior lights. alert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45. parallel cl of cleared track by 5 nm. consider clearing hla airspace and descending below fl290 then maintaining a 500 ft vertical off set from normal fls.. if not descending then establish a 500 ft vertical off set until atc clearance received.
.north atlantic operations and airspace manual — chapter 13.special procedures for in flight contingencies in oceanic airspace non weather 1 leave the cleared route or track by initially turning at least 30 degrees to the right or to the left, in order to intercept and maintain a parallel, same direction track or route offset 9.3 km 5.0 nm..2 attempt atc clearance..3 maintain fl if able or minimise climb/descent rate..4 maintain visual and acas watch.5 acas in ra mode, unless aircraft operating limitations ditact otherwise..6 turn on exterior lights..7 when able, alert other aircraft on 121.5 or 123.45..8 parallel cleared track same direction by 5 nm..9 descend below fl290, and establish a 150 m 500 ft vertical offset from those flight levels normally used, then proceed as required by the operational situation or if an atc clearance has been obtained, proceed in accordance with the clearance.
Question 238-8 : What is the general concept of the nat in flight contingency procedures whenever operationally feasible… ?
To offset 5 nm left or right of the cleared route and descend below fl290, then maintain a 500 ft vertical offset until an atc clearance received. if not descending below fl290, establish a 500 ft vertical offset.
.the key word in the question is 'contingency'. this means changing your routing without an atc clearance...imagine being on one of many nat parallel tracks, with aircraft stacked 1000 ft apart vertically above and below you. if you need to divert, then doing so safely will require obtaining a degree of separation from surrounding aircraft. in this event 1. separate laterally turn left or right by at least 30° until 5nm off track and then parallel. minimise descent during this phase.2. separate vertically. if you need to descend below nat hla, now descend to fl280. otherwise, if in rvsm airspace then split levels by 500 ft.note an simple way to detect correct and incorrect answers is to remember contingency scenarios climb or descent 500 ftweather avoidance climb or descent 300 ftnorth atlantic operations and airspace manual — chapter 13.13.2 general procedures13.2.1 if an aircraft is unable to continue the flight in accordance with its atc clearance, a revised clearance shall be obtained, whenever possible, prior to initiating any action. if prior clearance cannot be obtained, the following contingency procedures should be employed until a revised clearance is received a leave the cleared route or track by initially turning at least 30 degrees to the right or to the left, in order to intercept and maintain a parallel, same direction track or route offset 9.3 km 5.0 nm. the direction of the turn should be based on one or more of the following 1 aircraft position relative to any organized track or route system,.2 the direction of flights and flight levels allocated on adjacent tracks,.3 the direction to an alternate airport..4 any strategic lateral offset being flown, and.5 terrain clearance
Question 238-9 : According to the applicable operational requirements in commercial air transport, non precision approaches shall be flown using continuous descent final approach cdfa technique, unless another technique is approved...the is responsible for the instructions and procedures that are used by the ?
Operator.
Easa air ops..amc3 cat.op.mpa.115 approach flight technique — aeroplanes..operational procedures and instructions and training.. a the operator should establish procedures and instructions for flying approaches using the cdfa technique and not using it. these procedures should be included in the om and should include the duties of the flight crew during the conduct of such operations... b the operator should at least specify in the om the maximum rod for each aeroplane type/class operated and the required visual reference to continue the approach below.. 1 the da/h, when applying the cdfa technique. and.. 2 the mda/h, when not applying the cdfa technique.. c the operator should establish procedures which prohibit level flight at mda/h without the flight crew having obtained the required visual references. it is not the intention to prohibit level flight at mda/h when conducting a circling approach, which does not come within the definition of the cdfa technique... d the operator should provide the flight crew with unambiguous details of the technique used cdfa or not. the corresponding relevant minima should include.. 1 type of decision, whether da/h or mda/h... 2 mapt as applicable. and.. 3 appropriate rvr/vis for the approach operation and aeroplane category.
Question 238-10 : As a flight crew member, you are scheduled to perform your second operator proficiency check on the 30th day of may. the original expiry date for the current proficiency check is the 31st day of july. according to the eu ops regulations, the new validity period shall be counted from the… ?
31st of july
Easa air ops..oro.fc.230 recurrent training and checking.. b operator proficiency check.. 3 the validity period of the operator proficiency check shall be six calendar months. for operations under vfr by day of performance class b aeroplanes conducted during seasons not longer than eight consecutive months, one operator proficiency check shall be sufficient. the proficiency check shall be undertaken before commencing commercial air transport operations... c line check.. 1 each flight crew member shall complete a line check on the aircraft to demonstrate competence in carrying out normal line operations described in the operations manual. the validity period of the line check shall be 12 calendar months. 2 notwithstanding oro.fc.145 a 2 , line checks may be conducted by a suitably qualified commander nominated by the operator, trained in crm concepts and the assessment of crm skills... d emergency and safety equipment training and checking each flight crew member shall complete training and checking on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried. the validity period of an emergency and safety equipment check shall be 12 calendar months... g the validity periods mentioned in b 3 , c and d shall be counted from the end of the month when the check was taken... h when the training or checks required above are undertaken within the last three months of the validity period, the new validity period shall be counted from the original expiry date.
Question 238-11 : According to the eu regulation on air operations, when do aircraft need to be equipped with fasten seatbelt signs in an aircraft… ?
In which not all the passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seats.
Easa air ops. cat.ide.a.210 fasten seat belt and no smoking signsaeroplanes in which not all passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seat s shall be equipped with a means of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew when seat belts shall be fastened and when smoking is not allowed.
Question 238-12 : Consider eu regulation on air operations applicable to commercial air transport. for single pilot operations under ifr and at night, the pilot must have a minimum flight time experience of 1 under ifr and 2 at night on the relevant type or class of aeroplane. ?
1 50 hours. 2 15 hours.
Easa air ops..oro.fc.202 single pilot operations under ifr or at night..in order to be able to fly under ifr or at night with a minimum flight crew of one pilot, as foreseen in oro.fc.200 c 2 and d 2 , the following shall be complied with.. d for aeroplane operations at night the pilot shall have.. 1 a minimum of 15 hours flight time at night which may be included in the 50 hours flight time under ifr in c 1. and.. 2 completed during the preceding 90 days on the relevant type or class of aeroplane.. i three take offs and landings at night in the single pilot role. or.. ii a night take off and landing check.
Question 238-13 : Why might a pilot be required to follow familiarisation training..1. to operate another aircraft of the same type..2. to convert to a different class of aircraft..3. to operate another version of an aircraft of the same type..4. when minor changes of equipment are introduced to the aircraft normally ?
1 and 3.
Basically... differences training = additional knowledge and training. familiarisation = additional knowledge only...differences training is needed when operating another variant of the same type. for example, moving from the b737 classic to the b737 ng. although the same type rating, there is enough difference between these aircraft to require not only ground school training but also time in the sim to become acquainted...familiarisation training is needed when operating another version of the same type or if there is a significant change of equipment and/or procedures. for example, moving from the a320 to the a321. this is the same type rating and these aircraft are similar enough to require only ground school, and not sim time...looking at the answer options..'1. to operate another aircraft of the same type' > correct. this is describing operating another version of the aircraft type. ..'2. to convert to a different class of aircraft' > incorrect. we are dealing with type ratings, not class ratings...'3. to operate another version of an aircraft of the same type' > correct. the two aircraft are sufficiently similar to require only ground school training and no sim time is needed. for example moving from the a320 to the a321...'4. when minor changes of equipment are introduced to the aircraft normally flown' > incorrect. minor changes in equipment would not need formal familiarisation training. this is for changes of a significant nature.
Question 238-14 : When considering lateral navigation requirements in the nat hla, which of the following may grant rnp 10 and rnp 4 aircraft approvals ?
The state of registry or the state of the operator.
For full access to the nat hla, the minimum navigation specification approved by the state of registry or the state of the operator is rnp 10 or rnp 4.....north atlantic operations and airspace manual — chapter 1..1.2 approval..1.2.1 all flights within the nat hla must have the approval of either the state of registry of the aircraft, or the state of the operator. aircraft operating in rvsm airspace are required to be compliant with the altimetry minimum aircraft system performance specifications masps and hold an issued approval. approval for nat hla operations will require the checking by the state of registry or state of the operator, of various aspects affecting navigation performance. these aspects include the navigation equipment used, together with its installation and maintenance procedures. plus the flight crew navigation procedures employed and the flight crew training requirements...lateral navigation equipment..1.3.3 the navigation system accuracy requirements for nat mnpsa/hla operation should only be based on the pbn specifications, rnp 10 pbn application of rnav 10 or rnp 4. although when granting consequent approval for operations in mnpsa/nat hla, states should take account of the rnp 10 time limits for aircraft equipped with dual ins or inertial reference unit iru systems. all approvals issued after 04 february 2016 must be designated as nat hla approvals...1.3.6 when granting approval for operations in the nat hla, states of registry should also ensure that in flight operating drills are approved which include mandatory navigation cross checking procedures aimed at identifying navigation errors in sufficient time to prevent the aircraft inadvertently deviating from the atc cleared route.
Question 238-15 : According to the applicable operational requirements, under what circumstances would an aeroplane be required to be equipped with a pressure altitude reporting ssr transponder ?
It is required on the route being flown.
Don't over think this one a transponder is only needed if the route you are flying requires it, as shown in the regulation below...easa air ops.cat.ide.a.350 transponderaeroplanes shall be equipped with a pressure altitude reporting secondary surveillance radar ssr transponder and any other ssr transponder capability required for the route being flown.
Question 238-16 : When flying within the nat hla, the minimum required means of contacting atc is by using… ?
Hf communications in the 2.8 mhz to 18 mhz frequency band.
North atlantic operations and airspace manual — chapter 6.hf voice communications6.1.6 even with the growing use of data link communications a significant volume of nat air/ground communications are conducted using voice on ssb hf frequencies and gp vhf frequencies. to support air/ground atc communications in the north atlantic region, twenty four hf frequencies have been allocated, in bands ranging from 2.8 to 18 mhz. additionally, shanwick radio, santa maria radio, and iceland radio operate a number of regional and domestic air route area rdara frequencies in accordance with operating requirements and agreements between the stations.learning objective 071.01.03.03.32 state that even with the growing use of data link communications, a significant volume of nat air–ground communications are conducted using voice on single sideband ssb hf frequencies. to support air–ground atc communications in the north atlantic region, 24 hf frequencies have been allocated, in bands ranging from 2.8 to 18 mhz.
Question 238-17 : Nat operating procedures specify the need for the training of flight crew prior to operating within the nat hla. what is one of the intended objectives of this training to… ?
Highlight the risks of complacency and lack of adherence of sops due to over reliance on the provision and reliability of modern aeroplane systems.
Looking at the answer options 'improve the ability of the flight crew to perform dead reckoning navigation in the event of a loss of on board navigation systems, in order to continue flight within the nat hla' > incorrect. training for north atlantic operating procedures will not go into the details of dead reckoning and other fundamental navigation functions. besides, 2 long range navigation systems lrns are required for unrestricted access to the hla.'familiarise the flight crew with the limitations of the long range vhf communications systems used within the nat hla, and the deviations from normal vhf phraseology' > incorrect. vhf communications are not considered as being 'long range'. in the nat hla, hf communications are used to liaise with aeradio operators.'provide the flight crew with sufficient knowledge of sops in order to help them deal with any kind of abnormal situation while operating within the nat hla' > incorrect. the problem with this answer is 'any kind of abnormal situation'. crew will be trained in the most common abnormal situations, but it is unrealistic to cover any kind of the 1000's that could occur.'highlight the risks of complacency and lack of adherence of sops due to over reliance on the provision and reliability of modern aeroplane systems' > correct. this is taken from icao doc 007, as shown below. during long transatlantic flights, crews can become complacent and over rely on the aircraft's navigation and auto flight systems. by maintaining sop's the crew will ensure proper monitoring and cross checking during the flight.north atlantic operations and airspace manual — chapter 1crew training.1.3.8 it is essential that crews obtain proper training for nat hla and rvsm operations. current navigation systems, because of their precision and reliability, can induce a sense of complacency, which in turn tends to obscure the value of standard procedures, and in particular of cross checks. under these circumstances errors occur more easily. to prevent them, a special training programme for flight crews should be devised, which includes instructions on the efficient use of equipment, with emphasis on how to avoid mistakes. crew members should be trained to develop a meticulous method of using control display units cdus , with careful cross checking at all operational stages, in line with procedures described in chapter 8 of this document.note please let us know if you come across this question in your official exam as we have received inconsistent feedback on the correct option.
Question 238-18 : An aircraft is flying from vancouver, canada to paris, france. the selected route through the nat hla crosses greenland and iceland, where the grid mora is 14 200 ft. there is a minor problem with the pressurisation system, which necessitates an immediate descent to a lower level. what would be the ?
Leave the assigned route by turning at least 30 degrees away from the highest ground in order to maintain terrain clearance.
North atlantic operations and airspace manual. 13.2 general procedures13.2.1 if an aircraft is unable to continue the flight in accordance with its atc clearance, a revised clearance shall be obtained, whenever possible, prior to initiating any action. if prior clearance cannot be obtained, the following contingency procedures should be employed until a revised clearance is received a leave the cleared route or track by initially turning at least 30 degrees to the right or to the left, in order to intercept and maintain a parallel, same direction track or route offset 9.3 km 5.0 nm. the direction of the turn should be based on one or more of the following 1 aircraft position relative to any organized track or route system,. 2 the direction of flights and flight levels allocated on adjacent tracks,. 3 the direction to an alternate airport.. 4 any strategic lateral offset being flown, and. 5 terrain clearance.if the aircraft is unable to maintain its assigned flight level engine failure, power loss, loss of pressurization, etc it should, whenever possible, initially minimise its rate of descent when leaving its original track centreline. once clear of any potential traffic following the same track at lower levels, it should then expedite descent to an operationally feasible flight level, which differs from those normally used by 500 ft or 1000 ft as appropriate to the altitude.
Question 238-19 : While passengers are boarding, the dispatcher tells the commander that an intoxicated passenger must be offloaded who, it has been determined, poses a risk to other occupants. the senior cabin crew member sccm says he/she remembers the passenger, and although the passenger seems intoxicated, the ?
If the dispatcher is requesting to offload the passenger, the commander should assist in doing this.
Recent feedback indicates that easa deems the option if the dispatcher is requesting to offload the passenger, the commander should assist in doing this. correct...looking at the answers.. once the passenger is on board, it is the commander's decision whether he/she travels, so the commander should decide alone whether to offload him/her > incorrect. according to icao annex 6, the commander has full authority once the doors are closed. also, the wording the commander should decide alone is problematic as the commander should decide taking into account all relevant inputs such as the dispatcher and sccm... the commander should tell the passenger that he/she may travel on condition that he/she accepts that no alcohol will be served on the flight > incorrect. too little, too late. according to the question, the passenger is already drunk and therefore could endanger the flight... if the sccm is happy for the passenger to travel, then the commander should allow him/her to do so > incorrect. the commander can not ignore the dispatcher with the aircraft still on the ground and parked. the sccm's input is valuable and to be considered but is not the whole picture... if the dispatcher is requesting to offload the passenger, the commander should assist in doing this > correct. with the aircraft still on stand and the doors open, this is the best option. as mentioned above, feedback indicates this to be the correct option.
Question 238-20 : An aircraft is travelling from america to europe. the pilot wants to diverge due to weather, but he/she cannot get an atc clearance. the pilot has diverged less than 5 nm. what is the next step the pilots should take ?
Stay on the same level.
North atlantic operations and airspace manual — chapter 13..actions to be taken if a revised atc clearance cannot be obtained..13.4.6 if the aircraft is required to deviate from track or route to avoid adverse meteorological conditions and prior clearance cannot be obtained, an atc clearance shall be obtained at the earliest possible time. until an atc clearance is received, the pilot shall take the following actions..e for deviations of less than 9.3 km 5 nm from the originally cleared track or route remain at a level assigned by atc...f for deviations greater than or equal to 9.3 km 5 nm from the originally cleared track or route, when the aircraft is approximately 9.3 km 5 nm from track or route, initiate a level change in accordance with table 13 1...g if the pilot receives clearance to deviate from cleared track or route for a specified distance and, subsequently, requests, but cannot obtain a clearance to deviate beyond that distance, the pilot should apply a 300 ft vertical offset from normal cruising levels in accordance with table 13 1 before deviating beyond the cleared distance...h when returning to track or route, be at its assigned flight level when the aircraft is within approximately 9.3 km 5 nm of the centre line. and..i if contact was not established prior to deviating, continue to attempt to contact atc to obtain a clearance. if contact was established, continue to keep atc advised of intentions and obtain essential traffic information...table 13 1... . . originally cleared track or route centre line. deviations 9.3 km 5.0 nm. level change.. . . . east.. 000° – 179° magnetic. left.. right. descend 300 ft 90 m.. climb 300 ft 90 m. . . west.. 180° – 359° magnetic. left.. right. climb 300 ft 90 m descend 300 ft 90 m
Question 238-21 : When must 'no smoking' signs be illuminated ?
When oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.
The no smoking signs these days are illuminated continuously. however, in the regulations there are certain times when they must be on, even if this is now of historical interest effectively. when oxygen is being supplied is one such example, which makes sense due to the risk of explosion with fire cigarettes etc and oxygen forming 2 sides of the fire triangle…easa air ops.cat.ide.a.210 fasten seat belt and no smoking signsaeroplanes in which not all passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seat s shall be equipped with a means of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew when seat belts shall be fastened and when smoking is not allowed.cat.op.mpa.240 smoking on boardthe commander shall not allow smoking on board a whenever considered necessary in the interest of safety.. b during refuelling and defueling of the aircraft.. c while the aircraft is on the surface unless the operator has determined procedures to mitigate the risks during ground operations.. d outside designated smoking areas, in the aisle s and lavatory ies.. e in cargo compartments and/or other areas where cargo is carried that is not stored in flame resistant containers or covered by flame resistant canvas. and. f in those areas of the passenger compartment where oxygen is being supplied.
Question 238-22 : What does easa air ops apply to ?
Commercial air transport operations with aeroplanes and helicopters.
Looking at the answers..'aeroplanes and helicopters proceeding from european states or flying over them' > incorrect. easa air ops applies to european based operators. aircraft proceeding from europe or over flying the continent could be from another part of the world...'aeroplanes and helicopters used by police and customs departments' > incorrect. easa air ops applies to both commercial and non commercial activities but police and customs fall outside of this scope due to the unique nature of their activities...'commercial air transport operations with aeroplanes and helicopters' > correct. easa air ops covers both commerical air transport and non commercial, for example annex vi ncc. although not a complete answer, it is still considered a correct answer...'aeroplanes and helicopters used by defence departments' > incorrect. easa air ops applies to both commercial and non commercial activities but military flying falls outside of this scope due to the unique nature of their activities....easa air ops..commission regulation eu no 965/2012 of 5 october 2012..laying down technical requirements and istrative procedures related to air operations pursuant to regulation ec no 216/2008 of the european parliament and of the council..article 1 subject matter and scope..1. this regulation lays down detailed rules for air operations with aeroplanes and helicopters, including ramp inspections of aircraft of operators under the safety oversight of another state when landed at aerodromes located in the territory subject to the provisions of the treaties.
Question 238-23 : An aircraft may be required to carry additional survival equipment. the range and quantity of this equipment depends on the number of persons on board and the route to be flown. what is the correct reason for carrying this additional survival equipment ?
The aircraft is being operated in areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult.
Looking at the answer options the area being flown over is designated as one in which aircraft must carry survival equipment for dropping to other aircraft > incorrect. an airliner is not dropping equipment to other aircraft. this survival equipment is intended for the use of the aircraft's own passengers.the aircraft is carrying extra passengers under a company procedure for last minute changes lmcs > incorrect. the equipment would be carried based on the number of passengers so any lmc additional passengers would be included in the total.the aircraft is being operated in areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult > correct. this equipment is carried in order to assist the survivors during the time taken to locate and rescue them.this is required backup equipment in case the main equipment does not work > incorrect. this equipment is not carried as spares, but as unique equipment for survival in areas where location and rescue is difficult and will take time.easa air ops.cat.ide.a.305 survival equipment a aeroplanes operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped with 1 signalling equipment to make the distress signals.. 2 at least one elt s. and. 3 additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the number of persons on board.
Question 238-24 : An operator is performing cat scheduled flights in germany with a flight crew holding part fcl licences issued by france, the cabin crew hold attestations issued by sweden, and the operator has its principal place of business in italy. according to ops regulations, what member state shall designate ?
Italy
Easa air ops. regulation eu no 965/2012. cat. 100 competent authoritythe competent authority shall be the authority designated by the member state in which the operator has its principal place of business. principal place of business in italy => competent authority italy
Question 238-25 : Complete the following sentence in an aircraft galley, which is not located in the passenger compartment, a cabin crew member discovers a fire in the oven. there should be at least in the galley. ?
One hand fire extinguisher
Easa air ops. cat.ide.a.250 hand fire extinguishers a aeroplanes shall be equipped with at least one hand fire extinguisher in the flight crew compartment.. b at least one hand fire extinguisher shall be located in, or readily accessible for use in, each galley not located on the main passenger compartment.
Question 238-26 : The commander is receiving the passengers for a cat air taxi flight when it becomes clear that one of the cabin crew members is drunk. the commander thinks that behaviour of the cabin crew member is such that it might endanger the flight. what is the commander required to do about this.. the current ?
Refuse the cabin crew member in question access to the aircraft.
Easa air ops..gm1 ncc. 105 e 2 crew responsibilities..general..in accordance with 7.g. of annex iv to regulation ec no 216/20081 essential requirements for air operations , a crew member must not perform duties on board an aircraft when under the influence of psychoactive substances or alcohol or when unfit due to injury, fatigue, medication, sickness or other similar causes...gm1 ncc. 106 b pilot in command responsibilities and authority..authority to refuse carriage or disembark..this may include.. a passengers who have special needs that cannot be provided on the aircraft. or.. b persons that appear to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs..... taking into account that the current total cabin crew rostered for the flight exceeds the minimum required, the flight can be operated.
Question 238-27 : Consider nat hla flight operations, when flying in the new york oceanic east area. for the application of 50 nm lateral separation, which rnp designation is the minimum navigation specification ?
Rnp 10
In the north atlantic nat , the standard separation minima is horizontally 60 nmvertically 1000 ftthis separation minima can be reduced down to 50 nm if aircraft are fitted with navigation equipment that holds rnp 10 approval. this can apply in procedural oceanic or remote area airspace.regarding rnp 10 and rnav 10 icao doc 9613 states.any new airspace designations and aircraft approvals will continue to use the rnp 10 term while the required pbn application will now be known as rnav 10. north atlantic operations and airspace manual.nat doc 0071.3.4 additionally, in order for the 50 nm lateral separation minimum to be utilized in the new york oceanic east the following navigation performance criteria must also be met by aircraft with rnav 10 rnp 10 approvals a the proportion of the total flight time spent by aircraft 46 km 25 nm or more off the cleared track shall be less than 9.11 × 10 5. and.b the proportion of the total flight time spent by aircraft between 74 and 111 km 40 and 60 nm off the cleared track shall be less than 1.68 × 10 5.
Question 238-28 : A pilot working for a cat operator has performed 105 duty hours in the last 13 consecutive days. on the 14th day, the operator's crewing department calls, asking the pilot to operate a flight with a total duty of 8 hours later that same day. according to the eu ops regulations, what is the correct ?
Not operate the flight, since duty shall not exceed 110 duty hours in any 14 consecutive days.
Easa air ops. regulation eu no 83/2014. oro.ftl.210 flight times and duty periods a the total duty periods to which a crew member may be assigned shall not exceed 1 60 duty hours in any 7 consecutive days.. 2 110 duty hours in any 14 consecutive days. and. 3 190 duty hours in any 28 consecutive days, spread as evenly as practicable throughout that period. b the total flight time of the sectors on which an individual crew member is assigned as an operating crew member shall not exceed 1 100 hours of flight time in any 28 consecutive days.. 2 900 hours of flight time in any calendar year. and. 3 1 000 hours of flight time in any 12 consecutive calendar months. c post flight duty shall count as duty period. the operator shall specify in its operations manual the minimum time period for post flight duties.
Question 238-29 : A mpl multi crew pilot license gives you the right to… ?
Act as a co pilot on airplanes engaged in commercial air travel.
Easa aircrew. fcl.405.a mpl – privileges a the privileges of the holder of an mpl are to act as co pilot in an aeroplane required to be operated with a co pilot. b the holder of an mpl may obtain the extra privileges of 1 the holder of a ppl a , provided that the requirements for the ppl a specified in subpart c are met.. 2 a cpl a , provided that the requirements specified in fcl.325.a are met. c the holder of an mpl shall have the privileges of his/her ir a limited to aeroplanes required to be operated with a co pilot. the privileges of the ir a may be extended to single pilot operations in aeroplanes, provided that the licence holder has completed the training necessary to act as pic in single pilot operations exercised solely by reference to instruments and passed the skill test of the ir a as a single pilot.
Question 238-30 : Prior to refuelling, fire precautions that shall be observed are… ?
All bonding and connections to the earth terminal between ground equipment and the aircraft should be made before filler caps are removed.
Note the question states 'prior to refuelling...'..when it refers to the correct earthing procedure, that is just a case of making sure that all of the aircraft and fuel pump components are properly bonded together and all electricaly grounded, to let any static electricity dissipate, before removing fuel caps and beginning the fuelling procedure. sometimes this bonding procedure is actualy done between aircraft and fuel bowser rather than the ground, if it is on a fuel truck....icao doc. 9137 airport services manual part 8, chapter 10.6.2.1..referring to fuelling procedures.....the main points to be observed are..a no smoking or naked lights within the fuelling zone...b auxiliary power units and ground power units shall not be started during the fuelling operation...c a clear exit path maintained to and from the aircraft to allow the quick removal of fuelling equipment and persons in an emergency...d aircraft and supply sources shall be correctly bonded and the correct earthing procedure...e fire extinguishers of a suitable type should be readily available. and..f fuel spillage should be immediately brought to the attention of the fuelling overseer. detailed instructions should be laid down for dealing with fuel spillage
Question 238-31 : A company has a workforce of 25 full time equivalents ftes and all of them are operational staff. according to eu regulations and implementing rules on operational management systems, such an organisation is considered to be... ?
Complex
This is basically another magic number to memorise for the exam as a company grows, it will be deemed complex once it has a workforce of more than 20 full time equivalent employees...this question references learning objective 071.01.02.02.07 which states 'explain which are the operator requirements regarding the management system.'..an operator is considered non complex or complex depending on the size and scale of the operation. one of the important aspects of this distinction, is the requirement for management structure...for example, a start up company with one owner / pilot and one aircraft is clearly non complex and the owner / pilot will have to fulfil many of the management functions. a large, complex company such as air france, british airways etc will require a very different management structure covering areas such as... flight operations. ground operations. maintenance. training....amc1 oro. 200 b management system..size, nature and complexity of the activity.. a an operator should be considered as complex when it has a workforce of more than 20 full time equivalents ftes involved in the activity subject to regulation ec no 216/200848 and its implementing rules... b operators with up to 20 ftes involved in the activity subject to regulation ec no 216/200849 and its implementing rules may also be considered complex based on an assessment of the following factors.. 1 in terms of complexity, the extent and scope of contracted activities subject to the approval... 2 in terms of risk criteria, the extent of the following.. i operations requiring a specific approval... ii high risk commercial specialised operations... iii operations with different types of aircraft used. and.. iv operations in challenging environment offshore, mountainous area, etc..
Question 238-32 : Area navigation rnav and required navigation performance rnp are fundamentally similar but they differ in the requirements for on board performance monitoring and alerting. despite the differences in the requirements, renaming rnp routes to rnav routes would incur huge costs...according to icao doc ?
10
.the learning objective and the source material are clear with this answer rnav 10 retains the rnp 10 designation...learning objective 071.01.03.03.40 state that rnav 10 retains the rnp 10 designation, as specified in the performance based navigation manual icao doc 9613 icao doc 9613.1.2 navigation specification1.2.5.5 accommodating inconsistent rnp designations1.2.5.5.1 the existing rnp 10 designation is inconsistent with pbn rnp and rnav specifications. rnp 10 does not include requirements for on board performance monitoring and alerting. for purposes of consistency with the pbn concept, rnp 10 is referred to as rnav 10 in this manual. renaming current rnp 10 routes, operational approvals, etc., to an rnav 10 designation would be an extensive and expensive task, which is not cost effective. consequently, any existing or new operational approvals will continue to be designated rnp 10, and any charting annotations will be depicted as rnp 10 see figure i a 1 4.
Question 238-33 : Ops regulations specify the requirements for an operator to conduct initial crew resource management crm training. which one of the following is authorised to conduct this training ?
A suitably qualified crm trainer.
Easa air ops regulation eu no 965/2012.oro.fc.215 initial operator’s crew resource management crm training a the flight crew member shall have completed an initial crm training course before commencing unsupervised line flying.. b initial crm training shall be conducted by at least one suitably qualified crm trainer who may be assisted by experts in order to address specific areas.. c if the flight crew member has not previously received theoretical training in human factors to the atpl level, he/she shall complete, before or combined with the initial crm training, a theoretical course provided by the operator and based on the human performance and limitations syllabus for the atpl as established in annex i part fcl to regulation eu no 1178/2011.
Question 238-34 : An aeroplane is planned to perform a short flight where the maximum planned altitude is fl260. during flight preparations, the crew realises that the aeroplane is not rvsm compliant due to a technical malfunction that has been deferred to the mel...what, if any, altitude restrictions apply for the ?
None, as the flight is planned to operate below rvsm airspace.
Rvsm, or reduced vertical separation minima, means an approval to operate in airspace where 1000 ft vertical separation is established between fl290 and fl410. for rvsm airspace, additional requirements on equipment apply in order to ensure sufficient vertical accuracy.in this case, the flight is planned to operate below rvsm airspace fl260 , therefore no altitude restrictions apply.
Question 238-35 : According to the ops regulations, which of the following requires an aircraft to be equipped with an altitude alerting system when an aircraft is being used for… ?
Operations in rvsm airspace.
Easa air ops regulation eu no 965/2012.spa.rvsm.110 rvsm equipment requirementsaircraft used for operations in rvsm airspace shall be equipped with a two independent altitude measurement systems.. b an altitude alerting system.. c an automatic altitude control system.. d a secondary surveillance radar ssr transponder with altitude reporting system
Question 238-36 : As a flight crew member, you are to report for a period of airport standby. when does the airport standby period commence ?
From reporting at the reporting point.
Easa air ops regulation eu no 83/2014.oro.ftl.225 standby and duties at the airportif an operator assigns crew members to standby or to any duty at the airport, the following shall apply in accordance with the certification specifications applicable to the type of operation a standby and any duty at the airport shall be in the roster and the start and end time of standby shall be defined and notified in advance to the crew members concerned to provide them with the opportunity to plan adequate rest.. b a crew member is considered on airport standby from reporting at the reporting point until the end of the notified airport standby period.. c airport standby shall count in full as duty period for the purpose of points oro.ftl.210 and oro.ftl.235.. d any duty at the airport shall count in full as duty period and the fdp shall count in full from the airport duty reporting time. e the operator shall provide accommodation to the crew member on airport standby.
Question 238-37 : An aircraft is flying from london, heathrow, uk to new york, jfk, usa and is within the nat high level airspace at fl360. a hydraulic warning light has come on, which may necessitate a change of level. the in flight contingency procedure requires an offset from the assigned route.if prior clearance ?
A turn to the right of track of at least 30° towards the nearest alternate, which is keflavik, iceland.
.the key word in the question is 'contingency'. this means changing your routing without an atc clearance...imagine being on one of many nat parallel tracks, with aircraft stacked 1000 ft apart vertically above and below you. if you need to divert, then doing so safely will require obtaining a degree of separation from surrounding aircraft. in this event 1. separate laterally turn left or right by at least 30° until 5nm off track and then parallel. minimise descent during this phase.2. separate vertically. if you need to descend below nat hla, now descend to fl280. otherwise, if in rvsm airspace then split levels by 500 ft.note an simple way to detect correct and incorrect answers is to remember contingency scenarios climb or descent 500 ftweather avoidance climb or descent 300 ftnorth atlantic operations and airspace manual — chapter 13.13.2 general procedures13.2.1 if an aircraft is unable to continue the flight in accordance with its atc clearance, a revised clearance shall be obtained, whenever possible, prior to initiating any action. if prior clearance cannot be obtained, the following contingency procedures should be employed until a revised clearance is received a leave the cleared route or track by initially turning at least 30 degrees to the right or to the left, in order to intercept and maintain a parallel, same direction track or route offset 9.3 km 5.0 nm. the direction of the turn should be based on one or more of the following 1 aircraft position relative to any organized track or route system,.2 the direction of flights and flight levels allocated on adjacent tracks,.3 the direction to an alternate airport..4 any strategic lateral offset being flown, and.5 terrain clearance
Question 238-38 : With regards to the management of aeronautical databases, erroneous, inconsistent, or missing data that might be reasonably expected to constitute a hazard to flight shall be reported to… ?
The data provider.
Easa air ops regulation eu 2016/1199.cat.ide.a.355 management of aeronautical databases a aeronautical databases used on certified aircraft system applications shall meet data quality requirements that are adequate for the intended use of the data.. b the operator shall ensure the timely distribution and insertion of current and unaltered aeronautical databases to all aircraft that require them.. c notwithstanding any other occurrence reporting requirements as defined in regulation eu no 376/2014, the operator shall report to the database provider instances of erroneous, inconsistent or missing data that might be reasonably expected to constitute a hazard to flight.in such cases, the operator shall inform flight crew and other personnel concerned, and shall ensure that the affected data is not used.
Question 238-39 : On arrival at the aircraft the commander notices that some work is being carried out on a flap track. the engineer is on the flight deck completing the technical log entry for the daily maintenance check. the engineer leaves for a minute or two, then returns and completes a technical log, in which ?
The commander can sign the commander's acceptance in the technical log and depart.
This is the typical sequence of events the pilot finds a defect on the aircraft. they enter the details into the technical log.the relevant work is done to fix or replace the broken part.the maintenance release document is signed by the engineer to confirm that the work is complete and inspected.the pilot now counter signs the maintenance release to accept the aircraft back into service.in this question, 'the engineer leaves for a minute or two'. the engineer will inspect the work when it is complete and then sign the maintenance release to confirm all was done correctly. this allows the pilot to counter sign the paperwork and so accept the aircraft back into service.looking at the other answers 'the commander should ask the engineer to explain how he / she can sign the maintenance release when he / she was not involved in the work, nor did he / she watch it being carried out' > incorrect as the engineer does not need to do the work, only inspect it on completion. the work could be done by another engineer or a technician.'the commander must ask the engineer to get the technician who completed the work to sign a maintenance release' > incorrect. technicians are not qualified to sign the maintenance release. they can carry out the work but only the engineer can sign this document.'the commander should reject the aircraft and ask for an independent check by another aircraft engineer' > incorrect. another engineer is not needed, the current engineer is qualified to check and certify the work that has been done.chapter 8 aeroplane maintenance.8.8 maintenance release8.8.1 a maintenance release shall be completed and signed to certify that the maintenance work performed has been completed satisfactorily and in accordance with approved data and the procedures described in the maintenance organization’s procedures manual.8.8.2 a maintenance release shall contain a certification including a basic details of the maintenance carried out including detailed reference of the approved data used..b the date such maintenance was completed..c when applicable, the identity of the approved maintenance organization. and.d the identity of the person or persons signing the release. it is not sufficient to rely on oral contact between pilots and engineers when the aircraft arrives. every malfunction, unreliable operation or damage including bird strikes observed by the crew must be reported in written and so does any work performed by the technicians, should it be repair or regular maintenance.important note the correct option has been recently reviewed and updated according to recent feedback. the current correct option has been confirmed by several students.
Question 238-40 : An aircraft on a bi directional route in the nat region is experiencing turbulence from an aircraft ahead and above. according to the strategic lateral offset procedure slop , to reduce the effects of this wake turbulence, can the pilot of the affected aircraft offset, and if yes, how ?
Offset right of the cleared track centre line.
North atlantic operations and airspace manual. icao doc 007. strategic lateral offset procedures slop 8.5.8 while atc clearances are designed to ensure that separation standards are continually maintained for all traffic, errors do occur. neither flight crews nor controllers are infallible. gross navigation errors usually involving whole or half latitude degree mistakes in route waypoints are made, and aircraft are sometimes flown at flight levels other than those expected by the controller. ironically, when such errors are made, the extreme accuracies of modern navigation and height keeping systems themselves increase the risk of a collision. within an ats surveillance environment where vhf communications are available, controllers alerted to such errors will intervene using vhf voice communications. in areas surveillance or otherwise where vhf voice communication is not available, controllers rely on voice and data link position reports augmented by ads c and ads b transmissions to monitor conformance. controllers, when alerted to errors, will intervene using hf, cpdlc, satvoice or any other means available. given the potential delay in intervention, it has been determined that encouraging aircraft operating in the nat to fly self selected lateral offsets provides an additional safety margin and mitigates the risk of traffic conflict when non normal events such as aircraft navigation errors, height deviation errors and turbulence induced altitude keeping errors do occur. collision risk is significantly reduced by application of these offsets. these procedures are known as strategic lateral offset procedures slop.8.5.9 this procedure provides for offsets within the following guidelines a an aircraft may fly offsets right of centreline up to a maximum of 2 nm. and. b offsets left of centreline are not permitted.
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