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Question 239-1 : Who is responsible for applying the rule that passengers must not use portable electronic devices ped on board an aircraft during the flight ? [ Formation assignment ]
Operator
It is the operator's responsibility to make sure that passengers do not operate electronic devices which could influence aircraft systems and pose a threat to safety. if a device is found to cause interference with flight instruments or endanger the safety of flight in any other manner, it becomes the commander's responsibility, usually delegated to the cabin crew, to make the passenger stop using it, no matter whether it belongs among the generally admitted devices or not.note tricky use of english here. overall the operator establishes and applies the rules and the commander enforces them on board.easa air ops regulation eu no 965/2012.cat. mpa.140 portable electronic devicesthe operator shall not permit any person to use a portable electronic device ped on board an aircraft that could adversely affect the performance of the aircraft’s systems and equipment, and shall take all reasonable measures to prevent such use
Question 239-2 : A flight is scheduled to operate in polar regions. why is the compass not being used in such locations ?
The horizontal field strength is too weak.
.a freely suspended magnet will align itself with the earth's magnetic field. the total field t is resolved into a horizontal component h and a vertical component z.horizontal componentthe horizontal component h of the earth’s field is known as the directive force and it is the component which aligns the magnetic compass needle with the magnetic meridian providing a directional reference.near the magnetic poles, the vertical component becomes much greater than at lower latitudes where the horizontal component dominates. this leads to needles or cards in compasses being pulled downwards towards the ground, getting caught or dragging instead of turning freely in the horizontal plane. the horizontal component approaches zero over the poles => with a horizontal component which is too weak, compass performance becomes sluggish and inaccurate.the value of the horizontal component is maximum at the magnetic equator, a freely suspended compass needle in the earth's magnetic field will be horizontal to the earth in line with the horizontal component.note this question is now out of the scope of subject 071 and it has been moved to 022. however, it has been recently reported under operational procedures 071.
Question 239-3 : During a circling approach, it is assumed that the runway environment will be kept in sight while at… ?
Mda/h
Minimum descent altitude mda / minimum descent height mdh used for a non precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference.a circling approach is a visual flight manoeuvre. after initial visual contact, the basic assumption is that the runway environment should be kept in sight while at mda/h while circling. the runway environment includes features such as the runway threshold or approach lighting aids or other markings identifiable with the runwaydecision altitude da / decision height dh used for a precision approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.easa air ops.amc7 cat.op.mpa.110 aerodrome operating minima.circling operations — aeroplanes a circling minima the following standards should apply for establishing circling minima for operations with aeroplanes 1 the mdh for circling operation should not be lower than the highest of i the published circling och for the aeroplane category.. ii the minimum circling height derived from table 7. or. iii the dh/mdh of the preceding instrument approach procedure. 2 the mda for circling should be calculated by adding the published aerodrome elevation to the mdh, as determined by a 1
Question 239-4 : You have recently passed your initial training and line check for an operator and it is only your 6th flight as an inexperienced pilot. during the briefing, you realise that the captain you’re scheduled to fly with has also recently passed his/her command upgrade and it is only his/her 3rd flight. ?
No, there are too many inexperienced flight crew.
Only one of the crew can be inexperienced.an inexperienced pilot is typically someone with less than 100 hours / 10 sectors in that role on the aircraft type. this could be a brand new first officer or indeed a newly promoted captain.easa air ops regulation eu no 965/2012.oro.fc.200 composition of flight crew a there shall not be more than one inexperienced flight crew member in any flight crew. the operator should consider that a flight crew member is inexperienced, following completion of a type rating or command course, and the associated line flying under supervision, until he/she has achieved on the type either. 1 100 flight hours and flown 10 sectors within a consolidation period of 120 consecutive days. or. 2 150 flight hours and flown 20 sectors no time limit.
Question 239-5 : According to the eu regulation on air operations, when are aircrafts required to be equipped with no smoking signs in an aircraft… ?
In which not all the passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seats.
Easa air ops. cat.ide.a.210 fasten seat belt and no smoking signsaeroplanes in which not all passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seat s shall be equipped with a means of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew when seat belts shall be fastened and when smoking is not allowed.
Question 239-6 : An aircraft is performing an ils cat ii approach and it is not equipped with a hud. at dh the pilot can see 5 consecutive approach lights only. what's the correct procedure ?
The pilot cannot continue the approach, he/she must go around.
.for a cat ii approach you need to see at least 3 consecutive lights and...a lateral lighting element, such as a cross bar or barrettethe attached figure has such lighting highlighted.in this question the pilot can see 5 consecutive only. that is more than enough consecutive lights, except there is no lateral element mentioned and so a go around must be initiated.the visual references required for various approach categories are shown in the following table type of approachvisual reference to attain and maintainnpa apv cat ithe runway, its markings or almost any lightcat ii3 consecutive lights including a lateral elementcat iiia iiib fail passive3 consecutive lightscat iiib fail operational with dh3 centreline lightcat iiib with no dhno specification for visual referencea category ii operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ils or mls with a decision height dh below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft, and a runway visual range rvr of not less than 300 m.a pilot may not continue an approach below the category ii decision height determined above unless visual reference containing a segment of at least 3 consecutive lights being. the centreline of the approach lights, or. touchdown zone lights, or. runway centreline lights, or. runway edge lights, or. a combination of these is attained and can be maintained.this visual reference must include a lateral element of the ground pattern, i.e. an approach lighting crossbar or the landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone lighting, unless the operation is conducted utilising an approved hudls to touchdown.at the decision height, if these visual requirements are not met, a missed approach should be carried out.
Question 239-7 : Company a and company b sign a dry lease contract..company a leases the aircrafts from company b and they register them with the competent authority so that the aircraft now have the national registration..the pilots are ready to fly the aircraft when it becomes apparent that the navigation database ?
Yes, as long as the navigation database is current and all the procedures loaded.
Leasing is simply one operator borrowing an aircraft from another operator. the lessor leases out the aircraft and the lessee receives the aircraft. the 2 main types of leases are dry lease borrow the aircraft only and operate on the lessee's aocwet lease borrow the aircraft with the crew and operate on the lessor's aoc.in this question the aircraft has been dry leased and the lessee has additionally re registered the aircraft.the crew have found the fmc database to be from the lessor, so it would have company routes etc pre programed for a different operator. as long as the database is in date, it can still be used. the crew can still build a route using the database, they just don't have the time saving possibility of their own company routes being pre loaded.looking at the answers 'yes, because the navigation database doesn't have an impact on the operation' > incorrect. stating that the navigation database does not have an impact on the operation is wrong. although the crew can use it in this scenario, if the database is incorrectly used, this would compromise safety. yes, as long as the navigation database is current and all the procedures loaded > correct. the company routes would be for a different operator but the main database is fine and can be used to build the route.'yes, even if the navigation database is out of date' > incorrect. an out of date database can be used, if allowed by the mel, which is missing in this answer. looking at this another way with exaggeration, you could not use a database which is 5 years out of date, so this answer is incomplete at best.'no, the navigation database must be current and aligned with the navigation database of the company' > incorrect. as long as it's in date, then it can be used. it does not matter if the lessee's routes are not already loaded.
Question 239-8 : The 24 hour period commences at in a local time. ?
00 00
Easa air ops . oro.ftl.105 definitions‘local day’ means a 24 hour period commencing at 00 00 local time.
Question 239-9 : A pilot is working for an operator that has only one aircraft type and variant in their fleet. the operator is introducing a new aircraft that is considered a common type with the existing fleet, but a different variant to the existing aircraft. what shall the pilot do in order to be able operate on ?
Must complete differences training containing both theoretical and practical training.
Basically... differences training = additional knowledge and training. familiarization = additional knowledge only...differences training is needed when operating another variant of the same type. for example, moving from the b737 classic to the b737 ng. although the same type rating, there is enough difference between these aircraft to require not only ground school training but also time in the sim to become acquainted...familiarization training is needed when operating another version of the same type. for example, moving from the a320 to the a321. this is the same type rating and these aircraft are similar enough to require only ground school, and not sim time....easa part fcl..gm1 fcl.135.a. fcl.135.h..differences and familiarisation training.. a differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft... b familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
Question 239-10 : According to icao annex 6, a flight data analysis programme shall contain adequate safeguards to protect the 1 in accordance with 2 . ?
1 source s of data. 2 icao annex 19
The following icao annexes appear often in op's annex 6 operation of aircraftannex 10 aeronautical telecommunicationsannex 17 securityannex 18 dangerous goodsannex 19 safety managementfor this question, learning objective 071.01.01.03.02 state the condition s required for the establishment of a flight data analysis programme, and state what this programme is part of. use source icao annex 6, part iicao annex 6.1.3 safety management1.3.2 a flight data analysis programme shall contain adequate safeguards to protect the source s of the data in accordance with appendix 3 to annex 19.
Question 239-11 : According to the european regulation on air operations, operations under ifr, or under vfr over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks... ?
Aircraft shall be equipped with radio communication and navigation equipment in accordance with the applicable airspace requirements.
If operating under ifr / vfr but not using visual references, essential equipment varies with the airspace requirements... vor, dme, and adf if needed.. ils or mls if required for approach.. marker beacon if needed.. area navigation equipment if required for the route.. additional dme, vor, or adf systems if the route relies solely on these signals. aircraft can use alternative equipment instead of additional vor/adf systems, as long as it ensures safe navigation. gps would be an example of this.......easa air ops..amc2 cat.ide.a.345 communication and navigation equipment for operations under ifr or under vfr over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks..acceptable number and type of communication and navigation equipment.. a an acceptable number and type of communication and navigation equipment is.. 1 one vhf omnidirectional radio range vor receiving system, one automatic direction finder adf system, one distance measuring equipment dme , except that an adf system need not be installed provided that the use of adf is not required in any phase of the planned flight... 2 one instrument landing system ils or microwave landing system mls where ils or mls is required for approach navigation purposes... 3 one marker beacon receiving system where a marker beacon is required for approach navigation purposes... 4 area navigation equipment when area navigation is required for the route being flown e.g. equipment required by part spa... 5 an additional dme system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on dme signals... 6 an additional vor receiving system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on vor signals. and.. 7 an additional adf system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on non directional beacon ndb signals... b aeroplanes may be operated without the navigation equipment specified in 6 and 7 provided they are equipped with alternative equipment. the reliability and the accuracy of alternative equipment should allow safe navigation for the intended route.
Question 239-12 : A cat operator is notified by one of their pilots of a data inconsistency that has been discovered in the aeronautical database installed in one of their aeroplanes. the operator should... ?
Report the issue to the database provider.
Cat.ide.a.355 management of aeronautical databases... . . . a. . . aeronautical databases used on certified aircraft system applications shall meet data quality requirements that are adequate for the intended use of the data.. . . .... . . . b. . . the operator shall ensure the timely distribution and insertion of current and unaltered aeronautical databases to all aircraft that require them.. . . .... . . . c. . . notwithstanding any other occurrence reporting requirements as defined in regulation eu no 376/2014, the operator shall report to the database provider instances of erroneous, inconsistent or missing data that might be reasonably expected to constitute a hazard to flight... in such cases, the operator shall inform flight crew and other personnel concerned, and shall ensure that the affected data is not used.
Question 239-13 : A single engine aircraft with an mopsc of less than 19 flies over the sahara desert. due to difficulties in search and rescue activities, which rescue and survival equipment must be on board ?
One elt
Elt emergency locator transmitter..aeroplanes with an mopsc of 19 or less shall be equipped with at least 1 elt as shown in more detail below in the regulations......easa air ops..cat.ide.a.305 survival equipment.. a aeroplanes operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped with.. 1 signalling equipment to make the distress signals... 2 at least one elt s. and.. 3 additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the number of persons on board....easa air ops..regulation eu 2015/2338..cat.ide.a.280 emergency locator transmitter elt.. a aeroplanes with an mopsc of more than 19 shall be equipped with at least.. 1 two elts, one of which shall be automatic, or one elt and one aircraft localisation means meeting the requirement of cat. mpa.210, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual cofa after 1 july 2008. or.. 2 one automatic elt or two elts of any type or one aircraft localisation means meeting the requirement of cat. mpa.210, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual cofa on or before 1 july 2008... b aeroplanes with an mopsc of 19 or less shall be equipped with at least.. 1 one automatic elt or one aircraft localisation means meeting the requirement of cat. mpa.210, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual cofa after 1 july 2008. or.. 2 one elt of any type or one aircraft localisation means meeting the requirement of cat. mpa.210, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual cofa on or before 1 july 2008... c an elt of any type shall be capable of transmitting simultaneously on 121,5 mhz and 406 mhz.
Question 239-14 : An operator received a new airplane which during initial certification did not specify the minimum cabin crew members required. if the maximum seating capacity is 160, what is the minimum cc required ?
Four
Easa air ops. regulation eu 2019/1384. oro.cc.100 number and composition of cabin crew a for the operation of aircraft with an mopsc of more than 19, at least one cabin crew member shall be assigned when carrying one or more passenger s. b for the purpose of complying with point a , the minimum number of cabin crew members shall be the greatest number amongst the following 1 the number of cabin crew members established during the aircraft certification process in accordance with the applicable certification specifications, for the aircraft cabin configuration used by the operator.. 2 if the number under point 1 has not been established, the number of cabin crew members established during the aircraft certification process for the maximum certified passenger seating configuration reduced by 1 for every whole multiple of 50 passenger seats of the aircraft cabin configuration used by the operator falling below the maximum certified seating capacity.. 3 one cabin crew member for every 50, or fraction of 50, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the aircraft to be operated.
Question 239-15 : An operator with an aircraft with an mopsc of 19 notices the first aid kit is missing. which of the following applies ?
The operator must replace the first aid kit before any further flights can be carried out.
Easa air ops..cat.ide.a.220 first aid kit.. a aeroplanes shall be equipped with first aid kits, in accordance with table 1...table 1..number of first aid kits required... . . number of passenger seats installed. number of first aid kits required. . . 0 100. 1. . . 101 200. 2. . . 201 300. 3. . . 301 400. 4. . . 401 500. 5. . . 501 or more. 6. . ....... b first aid kits shall be.. 1 readily accessible for use. and.. 2 kept up to date.
Question 239-16 : An operator contracts in activities from another organisation. regardless of the approval status of the contracted organisation, according to the applicable operational requirements, who is responsible for ensuring that the contracted activities are subject to hazard identification and risk ?
The contracting operator.
Easa air ops. gm2 oro. 205 contracted activities. responsibility when contracting activities a regardless of the approval status of the contracted organisation, the contracting operator is responsible for ensuring that all contracted activities are subject to hazard identification and risk management, as required by oro. 200 a 3 , and to compliance monitoring, as required by oro. 200 a 6. b when the contracted organisation is itself certified or authorised to carry out the contracted activities, the operator’s compliance monitoring should at least check that the approval effectively covers the contracted activities and that it is still valid.
Question 239-17 : A cat operator holds an approval to carry out certain activities, but is currently unable to cope with the amount of work to be undertaken. the operator therefore decides to contract out some of the work to another operator, with the same level of approval. which of the following statements is true ?
The operator’s compliance monitoring should check that the subcontructor’s approval effectively covers the contracted activities and that it is still valid.
A commercial air transport cat operator is a company which holds an approval, granted by an authority. such an operator will have their own staff, acting under their approval...however, an operator may need to use another company to carry out work on their behalf a contractor. for example, consider an airline who do not have their own staff at a remote base and so they may use a handling agent...we have 2 situations to consider in these questions..1. the contractor does not hold their own approval from an authority. no problem, they can still carry out the task, but under the operator's approval...2. the contractor does hold their own approval. now the contractor can carry out the work under their own approval. but the operator must check that the contractor is doing things properly by checking for compliance monitoring, risk management, holds the correct approvals etc...in either case, a written agreement is required between the operator and the contractor. a verbal agreement is insufficient and can't be verified by the authority. more information from the source material below......easa air ops..oro. 205 contracted activities.. a when contracting or purchasing any services or products as a part of its activities, the operator shall ensure all of the following.. 1 that the contracted or purchased services or products comply with the applicable requirements... 2 that any aviation safety hazards associated with contracted or purchased services or products are considered by the operator's management system... b when the certified operator or the spo authorisation holder contracts any part of its activity to an organisation that is not itself certified or authorised in accordance with this part to carry out such activity, the contracted organisation shall work under the approval of the operator. the contracting organisation shall ensure that the competent authority is given access to the contracted organisation, to determine continued compliance with the applicable requirements.
Question 239-18 : A non etops airbus a320 departing from oslo suffers from a bird strike after takeoff which results in an engine failure. due to low visibility, the aircraft cannot return to the aerodrome of departure. how far away can the take off alternate be in still air conditions ?
60 min
According to 4.3 flight preparation from icao annex 6. 4.3.4 alternate aerodromes4.3.4.1 take off alternate aerodrome 4.3.4.1.1 a take off alternate aerodrome shall be selected and specified in the operational flight plan if either the. meteorological conditions at the aerodrome of departure are below the operator’s established aerodrome landing minima for. that operation or if it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for other reasons.4.3.4.1.2 the take off alternate aerodrome shall be located within the following flight time from the aerodrome of. departure a for aeroplanes with two engines, one hour of flight time at a one engine inoperative cruising speed, determined from the aircraft operating manual, calculated in isa and still air conditions using the actual take off mass. orb for aeroplanes with three or more engines, two hours of flight time at an all engines operating cruising speed, determined from the aircraft operating manual, calculated in isa and still air conditions using the actual take off mass. orc for aeroplanes engaged in extended diversion time operations edto where an alternate aerodrome meeting the distance criteria of a or b is not available, the first available alternate aerodrome located within the distance of the operator’s approved maximum diversion time considering the actual take off mass.
Question 239-19 : A commercial air transport cat operator requires specialist work which falls under the scope of the cat operator’s approval to be carried out by an outside contractor. the contractor’s approval to do these activities has not yet been granted by the competent authority. is it still possible for the ?
Yes, under the approval and oversight of the operator as a subcontracted activity.
A commercial air transport cat operator is a company which holds an approval, granted by an authority. such an operator will have their own staff, acting under their approval...however, an operator may need to use another company to carry out work on their behalf a contractor. for example, consider an airline who do not have their own staff at a remote base and so they may use a handling agent...we have 2 situations to consider in these questions..1. the contractor does not hold their own approval from an authority. no problem, they can still carry out the task, but under the operator's approval...2. the contractor does hold their own approval. now the contractor can carry out the work under their own approval. but the operator must check that the contractor is doing things properly by checking for compliance monitoring, risk management, holds the correct approvals etc...in either case, a written agreement is required between the operator and the contractor. a verbal agreement is insufficient and can't be verified by the authority. more information from the source material below......easa air ops..oro. 205 contracted activities.. a when contracting or purchasing any services or products as a part of its activities, the operator shall ensure all of the following.. 1 that the contracted or purchased services or products comply with the applicable requirements... 2 that any aviation safety hazards associated with contracted or purchased services or products are considered by the operator's management system... b when the certified operator or the spo authorisation holder contracts any part of its activity to an organisation that is not itself certified or authorised in accordance with this part to carry out such activity, the contracted organisation shall work under the approval of the operator. the contracting organisation shall ensure that the competent authority is given access to the contracted organisation, to determine continued compliance with the applicable requirements.
Question 239-20 : The fdp was extended to 9 hours. provided that the crew is at their home base and the operator is not providing accommodation, when can the next flight duty commence ?
12 hours
Easa air ops. oro.ftl.235 rest periods a minimum rest period at home base. 1 the minimum rest period provided before undertaking an fdp starting at home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period, or 12 hours, whichever is greater.. 2 by way of derogation from point 1 , the minimum rest provided under point b applies if the operator provides suitable accommodation to the crew member at home base. b minimum rest period away from home base. the minimum rest period provided before undertaking an fdp starting away from home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period, or 10 hours, whichever is greater. this period shall include an 8 hour sleep opportunity in addition to the time for travelling and physiological needs.
Question 239-21 : In accordance with easa air ops, for aeroplanes with a mctom of more than 27 000 kg and certified on or after the 1 january 2021, cockpit voice recorder cvr , when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last... ?
25 hours
Cockpit voice recorders cvr.the following shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder cvr airplanes with mtom of more than 5700 kg.multi engined turbine powered aeroplanes with mtom of 5700 kg or less, with mopsc of more than 9 and first issued with an individual cofa on or after january 1, 1990.since 2019, the cvr shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least 25 hours for aeroplanes with mtom of more than 27 000 kg and first issued with an individual cofa on or after january 1, 2021.2 hours in all other cases.according to commission regulation eu no 965/2012 on air operations, the minimum is 25 hours for aeroplanes with mctoms of over 27 000 kg and first issued with individual cofas on or after 1 january 2021, and two hours for all other aeroplanes and helicopters
Question 239-22 : A person is part of an organisation and wishes to sit on the jumpseat. is he/she allowed ?
He/she can only occupy a jumpseat if the pilot in command permits according to operator procedures.
Amc3 oro.mlr.100 dictates that an operator shall establish the conditions and procedures for the use of vacant crew seats...the procedures are mainly based according to the national aviation security program and the operator security program, in accordance with pilot in command pic approval....below you can find an example of the requirements established by an european company..use of vacant crew seats supernumery seat/jump seat..the supernumerary seat/jump seat may only be occupied at the discretion and with the express approval of the commander. this approval may not unreasonably be withheld for legitime checking personnel, training and familiarisation, observers monitoring aircraft systems or performance, or positioning crew...the captain shall satisfy him/herself that a jumpseat passenger is not of any known or apparent mental instability, is not under the influence of alcohol or drugs or any prohibited or prescribed substances, is able bodied/not prevent through any infirmity from reacting correctly to instructions and reacting correctly in an emergency situation.
Question 239-23 : During a turnaround, the pilots get a visit from a competent authority who requests to see the aircraft’s documents. what should the commander do in this situation ?
Provide to that person the documentation required to be carried on board.
Easa air ops. cat. mpa.190 provision of documentation and recordsthe commander shall, within a reasonable time of being requested to do so by a person authorised by an authority, provide to that person the documentation required to be carried on board.
Question 239-24 : An aircraft has been flying with one of its two transponders defective and the failure has been deferred in accordance with the mel. during a 30 minute turnaround, an engineer replaces the defective transponder with a new one. prior to commencing the next commercial air transport flight, what must ?
The engineer must certify to have changed the transponder in accordance with the prescribed procedures and maintenance release must be signed for by an authorised person.
Maintenance release..a maintenance release is a certification for return to service of an aircraft, engine, propeller, component, and appliance. the release certifies that the aircraft and/or its component has been undergone maintenance and found in an airworthy condition. issuance of maintenance release is mandatory upon completion of the maintenance service except the daily/preflight inspection...to issue a maintenance release, the certified maintenance personnel is required to enter his signature with his license number and the date of certification under the maintenance release statement certifies that the work specified except as otherwise specified was carried out in accordance with the requirement of the air navigation act and in respect to that work the aircraft/engine/propeller/aircraft component is considered ready for release to service stamped, pre printed or written by himself following the description of work performed in the appropriated log book or log book insert.... it is not sufficient to rely on oral contact between pilots and engineers when the aircraft arrives. every malfunction, unreliable operation or damage including bird strikes observed by the crew must be reported in written and so does any work performed by the technicians, should it be repair or regular maintenance...note we would kindly ask anyone who comes across this question to contact us at their earliest convenience.
Question 239-25 : Why do small navigation mistakes lead to larger errors in the polar region ?
The convergence of the meridians.
.magnetic variation and convergence of the meridians.conventional magnetic compasses sense magnetic direction by detecting the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field. since this horizontal component becomes very weak near the magnetic poles, magnetic compasses are highly unreliable near the poles. within these areas, air navigation tasks are further complicated by very rapid changes in magnetic variation over small distances. for example, when flying between the magnetic north pole and the true north pole, a heading of true north results in a magnetic heading of south a magnetic variation of 180 degrees.the nature of the conventional geographic coordinate system is such that all meridians converge to the pole. this convergence also presents additional directional complications. when flying a great circle courses at latitudes greater than 67°, convergence of the meridians can create rapid changes in true headings and true courses with small changes in aircraft position. as a result, relatively small errors in determining the aircraft's actual position can produce very large errors in determining the proper heading to fly and maintain the assigned flight path. when even small errors occur, very large navigation errors can develop over extremely short distances. even in straight and level flight along a great circle course, true course can change several degrees over a short period of time. you are placed in the peculiar position of constantly altering the aircraft’s magnetic heading in order to maintain a straight course.
Question 239-26 : In regards to recurrent training and checking, what is the validity of the operator proficiency check ?
12 months
We have received several feedback on the validity of operator proficiency checks which states that the correct option in the exam is 12 months. we were very reluctant to accept it and decided to do some digging. this is what we found out..according to easa air ops, section 2 additional requirements for commercial air transport operations oro.fc.230 reccurent training and checking point b 3 the validity period of the operator proficiency check shall be six calendar months...according to easa air ops, section 3 additional requirements for commercial specialised operations and cat operations referred to in oro.fc.005 b 1 and 2 oro.fc.330 recurrent training and checking operator proficiency check point c the validity of the operator proficiency check shall be 12 calendar months...several students have now confirmed that the correct option in the exam is 12 months, and that the question did not give any further information whether specialised operations and cat operations were in force.
Question 239-27 : Before commencing a flight, the copilot checks the aircraft documentation and notices that there is only a copy of the aircraft certificate of registration on board. is there a problem ?
Yes, original must be on board.
European commercial air transport operators must make sure that the following documents are carried onboard aircraft and operator certificates certificate of registration original certificate of airworthiness original noise certificateair operator certificate certified true copy operations specification, if applicableaircraft radio licence original third party liability insurance certificateeasa air ops.cat. mpa.180 documents, manuals and information to be carried a the following documents, manuals and information shall be carried on each flight, as originals or copies unless otherwise specified 1 the aircraft flight manual afm , or equivalent document s.. 2 the original certificate of registration.. 3 the original certificate of airworthiness cofa....
Question 239-28 : A cat operator requires specialist work which falls under the scope of the cat operator’s approval to be carried out by an outside contractor. which of the following options is correct ?
A written agreement should exist between the operator and the contracted organisation.
Easa air ops. amc1 oro. 205 contracted activities. responsibility when contracting activities a the operator may decide to contract certain activities to external organisations.. b a written agreement should exist between the operator and the contracted organisation clearly defining the contracted activities and the applicable requirements.. c the contracted safety related activities relevant to the agreement should be included in the operator's safety management and compliance monitoring programmes.. d the operator should ensure that the contracted organisation has the necessary authorisation or approval when required, and commands the resources and competence to undertake the task.
Question 239-29 : An aircraft with an mopsc of 19 is scheduled for a 1 hour flight. however, the aeroplane operator notices that the aeroplane does not contain a first aid kit. what must the operator do ?
Install an appropriate first aid kit or cancel the flight, as at least one kit is required for an aeroplane of this size.
Easa air ops. cat.ide.a.220 first aid kit a aeroplanes shall be equipped with first aid kits, in accordance with table 1.. table 1 number of first aid kits required number of passenger seats installed number of first aid kits required 0 100 1 101 200 2 201 300 3 301 400 4 401 500 5 501 or more 6 . b first aid kits shall be 1 readily accessible for use. and. 2 kept up to date.
Question 239-30 : After a commercial passenger flight, the flight crew awaits by the baggage carousel for their luggage. their hold luggage is delivered last, when all the passengers have already left. the flight crew notices that there is a piece of luggage remaining on the carousel which has not been claimed. ?
Unidentified baggage.
Icao annex 17 states..unidentified baggage. baggage at an airport, with or without a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or identified with a passenger.
Question 239-31 : A commercial air transport ifr flight will be operated to an airport which is classified by the operator as an isolated aerodrome. compared to flights to most other aerodromes, what is different about this specific flight ?
There is no requirement for a destination alternate aerodrome.
Isolated aerodromes are more a feature of the flight planning syllabus but do overlap a little here in op's.an isolated aerodrome is basically a remote airfield which in the event of a diversion, is a long way from a destination alternate. this means that the destination essentially becomes it's own alternate, and no alternate planning is required.the exact details for both piston and turbine engined aircraft vary, as shown below.easa part cat op.mpa.183 fuel scheme for isolated aerodromes an isolated aerodrome is one for which the alternate and final fuel reserve required to the nearest adequate destination alternate aerodrome is more than 1 for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes plus 15% of the flying time planned to be spent at cruising level or 2 hours, whichever is less. or 2 for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to fly for 2 hours at normal cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel.
Question 239-32 : An aircraft has departed from dublin on a transoceanic flight to montreal. prior to entering nat hla high level airspace at level flight, the flight crew performs a final confirmation of the aircraft systems serviceability and checks the two primary altimeter readings. unless otherwise specified, ?
200 ft.
Nat hla specifies lateral and vertical guidance accuracy to assure safe aircraft separation. to comply with rvsm requirements, the two independent altimetry systems that are required in such airspace must be checked for a maximum allowable difference of 200 ft before entering nat hla.
Question 239-33 : Complete the following sentence..the validity period of a line check shall be 12 calendar months counted from… ?
The end of the month when the check was taken.
Line check carried out in the aircraft to demonstrate proficiency with the operator's sops and regulations done every 12 months. note that the validity period of a line check will be counted from the end of the month the check was initially taken....easa air ops..regulation eu 2015/140..oro.fc.230 recurrent training and checking.. c line check.. 1 each flight crew member shall complete a line check on the aircraft to demonstrate competence in carrying out normal line operations described in the operations manual. the validity period of the line check shall be 12 calendar months... 2 notwithstanding oro.fc.145 a 2 , line checks may be conducted by a suitably qualified commander nominated by the operator, trained in crm concepts and the assessment of crm skills....also useful for the exam..skills test the flying test that completes training on a type rating course with circuits to come...licence proficiency check lpc renewal of the type rating / ir done every 12 months...operator proficiency check opc effectively a mini ir and done between lpc's. the elements tested in an opc are also done on the full lpc so you end up doing 2 opc's in every 12 months...for example... complete the skills test and type rating 31st december. now valid for 12 months.. lpc must be done by the following 31st december, but can be done for operational flexibility anytime within 3 months prior to this date, ie in october, november or december. the new validity would be for 12 months from the original expiry though.. mid year, you will need to do an opc. in this example, by 30th june. again there is a 3 month window to complete this check, allowing for operational flexibility....finally, regarding the opc / 12 month questions this relates only to specialised tasks. for example, an operator is certified to carry out the spraying of detergent on oil slicks. this is clearly a specialised task as it involves low level flying and unique operating conditions. this skill is tested every year by the operator using an opc. here, the crew will have to fly a dummy run and demonstrate competency in this operation.
Question 239-34 : A not etops approved twin engined aeroplane on a commercial air transport operation departs from athens to milan. shortly after departure, visibility in athens deteriorates. the flight crew decides to select a different take off alternate. this new take off alternate must be located within…. oei one ?
One hour flying time, at oei cruising speed.
Easa air ops. cat.op.mpa.180 selection of aerodromes — aeroplanes a where it is not possible to use the departure aerodrome as a take off alternate aerodrome due to meteorological or performance reasons, the operator shall select another adequate take off alternate aerodrome that is no further from the departure aerodrome than 1 for two engined aeroplanes i one hour flying time at an oei cruising speed according to the afm in still air standard conditions based on the actual take off mass. or. ii the etops diversion time approved in accordance with annex v part spa , subpart f, subject to any mel restriction, up to a maximum of two hours, at the oei cruising speed according to the afm in still air standard conditions based on the actual take off mass. 2 for three and four engined aeroplanes, two hours flying time at the oei cruising speed according to the afm in still air standard conditions based on the actual take off mass.
Question 239-35 : According to icao annex 6 part i, a commercial air transport operator of aeroplanes is required to establish a flight data analysis programme as part of the safety management system when operating… ?
One or more aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take off mass in excess of 27 000 kg.
Operators of aircraft with a maximum take off mass of more than 27 000 kg are required to collect and process flight data from recorders to evaluate negative trends in potentially dangerous behaviour of crews such as inappropriate use of configuration, undesirable aircraft control techniques, etc.annex 6 part i. 3.3 safety management3.3.6 an operator of an aeroplane of a maximum certificated take off mass in excess of 27 000 kg shall establish and maintain a flight data analysis programme as part of its safety management system.
Question 239-36 : According to icao guidance for holding procedures, what is correct for all turns in nil wind they should be at… ?
25° bank angle, or 3° per second. whichever is lesser.
Icao 8168 . volume i . chapter 1 holding criteria . 1.3 speeds, rate of turn, timing, distance and limiting radial . 1.3.2 bank angle/rate of turnall turns are to be made at a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.
Question 239-37 : A pilot is performing the pre flight preparations on an aircraft whose first certificate of airworthiness was issued in 2010. this is the first time the pilot is operating an aircraft where a flight data recorder fdr is required. the following is a requirement about the operation of the fdr… ?
Regardless of pilot action, recording will start and stop automatically to ensure the fdr can record data at all times when the aeroplane is capable of moving under its own power.
The fdr shall start to record the data prior to the aeroplane being capable of moving under its own power and shall stop after the aeroplane is incapable of moving under its own power. in addition, in the case of aeroplanes issued with an individual cofa on or after 1 april 1998, the fdr shall start automatically to record the data prior to the aeroplane being capable of moving under its own power and shall stop automatically after the aeroplane is incapable of moving under its own power.source easa air ops cat.ide.a.190 flight data recorder
Question 239-38 : During the turnaround and prior to boarding, the flight crew are informed that one of the passengers is an unescorted inadmissible passenger who arrived earlier on the same day on a flight by the same operator. the person is to be returned to the country where she/he initially travelled from, which ?
A notification is required for any special category passenger scp.
Easa air ops. cat.op.mpa.155 carriage of special categories of passengers scps a persons requiring special conditions, assistance and/or devices when carried on a flight shall be considered as scps including at least 1 persons with reduced mobility prms who, without prejudice to regulation ec no 1107/2006, are understood to be any person whose mobility is reduced due to any physical disability, sensory or locomotory, permanent or temporary, intellectual disability or impairment, any other cause of disability, or age.. 2 infants and unaccompanied children. and. 3 deportees, inadmissible passengers or prisoners in custody. b scps shall be carried under conditions that ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants according to procedures established by the operator. c scps shall not be allocated, nor occupy, seats that permit direct access to emergency exits or where their presence could 1 impede crew members in their duties.. 2 obstruct access to emergency equipment. or. 3 impede the emergency evacuation of the aircraft. d the commander shall be notified in advance when scps are to be carried on board. the commander must be informed about the carriage of scp and has the right to refuse their carriage for safety reasons.
Question 239-39 : During boarding, a visually impaired passenger notifies the cabin crew that his/her accompanying passenger has been assigned a seat away from him/her. when boarding is complete and all passengers have taken their seat, the cabin crew verifies that the only available seats together are on the ?
Not be assigned these seats as direct access to the emergency exit could be impeded.
Easa air ops. cat.op.mpa.155 carriage of special categories of passengers scps a persons requiring special conditions, assistance and/or devices when carried on a flight shall be considered as scps including at least 1 persons with reduced mobility prms who, without prejudice to regulation ec no 1107/2006, are understood to be any person whose mobility is reduced due to any physical disability, sensory or locomotory, permanent or temporary, intellectual disability or impairment, any other cause of disability, or age.. 2 infants and unaccompanied children. and. 3 deportees, inadmissible passengers or prisoners in custody. b scps shall be carried under conditions that ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants according to procedures established by the operator. c scps shall not be allocated, nor occupy, seats that permit direct access to emergency exits or where their presence could 1 impede crew members in their duties.. 2 obstruct access to emergency equipment. or. 3 impede the emergency evacuation of the aircraft. d the commander shall be notified in advance when scps are to be carried on board.
Question 239-40 : The flight crew performs an in flight fuel check and they determine that the usable fuel at destination is less than the alternate fuel plus final reserve. what should the pic do 1. assure a safe landing at the destination or divert to an alternate.2. declare an emergency and divert to an ?
1 and 3.
If it is found that, when flying to the destination, the fuel remaining will be less than the alternate and final reserve fuel, a decision must be made to continue either to the destination or to the alternate so as not to land with less than the final reserve fuel...looking at the answer options..1. assure a safe landing at the destination or divert to an alternate. > correct. there is sufficient fuel to land at the destination with final reserve on board. if conditions are such that landing at the destination is uncertain, then a divert would be appropriate to ensure final reserve is available on landing. what can not happen is to fail the approach to the destination and then divert, as we know from the question that there would be less than final reserve on landing...2. declare an emergency and divert to an alternate. > incorrect. this is not yet an emergency situation. landing at an alternate with final reserve is possible according to the question...3. assure a safe landing with not less than final reserve fuel remaining. > correct. 100% the plan...4. assure a safe landing with not less than contingency fuel remaining. > incorrect. final reserve is required, not contingency fuel....easa air ops..cat.op.mpa.280 in flight fuel management – aeroplanes..the operator shall establish a procedure to ensure that in flight fuel checks and fuel management are carried out according to the following criteria... b in flight fuel management.. 1 the flight shall be conducted so that the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome is not less than.. i the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel. or.. ii the final reserve fuel if no alternate aerodrome is required... 2 if an in flight fuel check shows that the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome is less than.. i the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel, the commander shall take into account the traffic and the operational conditions prevailing at the destination aerodrome, at the destination alternate aerodrome and at any other adequate aerodrome in deciding whether to proceed to the destination aerodrome or to divert so as to perform a safe landing with not less than final reserve fuel. or.. ii the final reserve fuel if no alternate aerodrome is required, the commander shall take appropriate action and proceed to an adequate aerodrome so as to perform a safe landing with not less than final reserve fuel... 3 the commander shall declare an emergency when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel.
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