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Question 240-1 : During the pre flight preparation, a pilot who is operating a commercial air transport flight with passengers, notices a fault with the only gps receiver on board. the pilot has access to both the mel and the mmel, and finds the notes as shown below. how should the effect of the fault be ? [ Question security ]
This flight may be conducted as planned if it is daylight and the flight is planned according to vfr only.
Looking at the answer options 'the pilot may conduct the flight with no restrictions if the flight remains in vmc and alternative means for navigation are used'. > incorrect. the mel states may be inoperative for vfr by day only , not for flight in vmc. an ifr flight could be conducted in vmc, but the mel limits flight to vfr by day only.'the restriction in the mmel applies because this is the master document produced by the aeroplane manufacturer'. > incorrect. when flying the line, your source document is the mel, as written by your operator and found in the ops manual part b. it is more restrictive than the mmel.'this flight may be conducted as planned if it is daylight and the flight is planned according to vfr only'. > correct. the mel states may be inoperative for vfr by day only. when flying the line, your source document is the mel, as written by your operator and found in the ops manual part b.'restrictions in the mel are less strict than the mmel and therefore the mel must be used in this case'. > incorrect. the mel will be more restrictive than the mmel, and certainly can not be less restrictive.master minimum equipment list mmel. a list established for a particular aircraft type by the organization responsible for the type design with the approval of the state of design containing items, one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the commencement of a flight. the mmel may be associated with special operating conditions, limitations or procedures.minimum equipment list mel. a list which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the mmel established for the aircraft type.the manufacturer draws up a master minimum equipment list mmel. the mel minimum equipment list is drawn up by the operator and cannot be less restrictive than the mmel.
Question 240-2 : A pilot is flying a light aircraft in non european control airspace without an ssr transponder. in which annex should the pilot find information about this operation ?
Annex 10
The secondary surveilance radar ssr transponders of aeroplanes being operated under european air traffic control should comply with any applicable single european sky legislation. if the single european sky legislation is not applicable, the ssr transponders should operate in accordance with the relevant provisions of volume iv of icao annex 10....relevant icao annexes for ops questions are in bold.....icao annexes..annex 1 personnel licensing...annex 2 rules of the air...annex 3 meteorological service for international air navigation...annex 4 aeronautical charts...annex 5 units of measurement to be used in air and ground operations...annex 6 operation of aircraft...annex 7 aircraft nationality and registration marks...annex 8 airworthiness of aircraft...annex 9 facilitation...annex 10 aeronautical telecommunications...annex 11 air traffic services...annex 12 search and rescue...annex 13 aircraft accident and incident investigation...annex 14 aerodromes...annex 15 aeronautical information services...annex 16 environmental protection...annex 17 security...annex 18 the safe transport of dangerous goods by air...annex 19 safety management.
Question 240-3 : Consider nat hla flight operations, when flying in the new york oceanic east area. for the application of 50 nm lateral separation, which rnp designation is the minimum navigation specification ?
Rnav 10
North atlantic operations and airspace manual . nat doc 0071.3.4 additionally, in order for the 50 nm lateral separation minimum to be utilized in the new york oceanic east the following navigation performance criteria must also be met by aircraft with rnav 10 rnp 10 approvals a the proportion of the total flight time spent by aircraft 46 km 25 nm or more off the cleared track shall be less than 9.11 × 10 5. and . b the proportion of the total flight time spent by aircraft between 74 and 111 km 40 and 60 nm off the cleared track shall be less than 1.68 × 10 5.
Question 240-4 : Where may the pilot find type specific aircraft operating information ?
Ops manual part b
Easa air ops. regulation eu 2018/1975. oro.mlr.101 operations manual – structure for commercial air transportexcept for operations with single engined propeller driven aeroplanes with an mopsc of 5 or less or single engined non complex helicopters with an mopsc of 5 or less, taking off and landing at the same aerodrome or operating site, under vfr by day, the main structure of the om shall be as follows a part a general/basic, comprising all non type related operational policies, instructions and procedures.. b part b aircraft operating matters, comprising all type related instructions and procedures, taking into account differences between types/classes, variants or individual aircraft used by the operator.. c part c commercial air transport operations, comprising route/role/area and aerodrome/ operating site instructions and information.. d part d training, comprising all training instructions for personnel required for a safe operation.
Question 240-5 : During your preflight inspection and walk around the aeroplane at the stand next to you catches fire during refuelling. to aid the passengers evacuate before the rff crew arrives, you try to locate the break in points of that aeroplane. what colour should those markings be ?
Red or yellow.
. break in points are the areas of the fuselage on an aeroplane for outside break in by the airport rescue services. break in points should be marked on the outer skin of the fuselage and they should be red or yellow and lined in white in these colours are not in contrast with the background paint
Question 240-6 : Considering the provisions on flight crew training in the eu regulation on air operations, familiarisation training requires… ?
Only the acquisition of additional knowledge.
Differences training and familiarisation trainingdifferences training requires additional knowledge and training on the aircraft or an appropriate training device. it should be carried out 1 when introducing a significant change of equipment and/or procedures on types or variants currently operated. and. 2 in the case of aeroplanes, when operating another variant of an aeroplane of the same type or another type of the same class currently operated. or. 3 in the case of helicopters, when operating a variant of a helicopter currently operated.familiarisation training requires only the acquisition of additional knowledge. it should be carried out when 1 operating another helicopter or aeroplane of the same type. or. 2 when introducing a significant change of equipment and/or procedures on types or variants currently operated.source easa air ops amc1 oro.fc.125 differences training and familiarisation training
Question 240-7 : The relevant aspects and specialised tasks that pilots need to demonstrate during their operator proficiency checks opc are described in the… ?
Operations manual
Easa air ops. oro.fc.330 recurrent training and checking — operator proficiency check a each flight crew member shall complete recurrent training and operator proficiency checks. in the case of specialised operations, the recurrent training and checking shall cover the relevant aspects associated with the specialised tasks described in the operations manual. b appropriate consideration shall be given when operations are undertaken under ifr or at night. c the validity period of the operator proficiency check shall be 12 calendar months.
Question 240-8 : At the latest, the crew security training should be done… ?
Before unsupervised line flights.
Easa air ops.oro.fc.120 operator conversion training a in the case of aeroplane or helicopter operations, the flight crew member shall complete the operator conversion training course before commencing unsupervised line flying 1 when changing to an aircraft for which a new type or class rating is required.. 2 when joining an operator. b the operator conversion training course shall include training on the equipment installed on the aircraft as relevant to flight crew members’ roles.amc1 oro. 110 a operator responsibilities.security training programme for crew members — cat operationswithout prejudice to regulation ec no 300/2008, the cat operator should establish and maintain a security training programme for crew members, including theoretical and practical elements. this training should be provided at the time of operator conversion training and thereafter at intervals not exceeding three years. the content and duration of the training should be adapted to the security threats of the individual operator and should ensure that crew members act in the most appropriate manner to minimise the consequences of acts of unlawful interference. this programme should include the following elements a determination of the seriousness of the occurrence.. b crew communication and coordination.. c appropriate self defence responses.. d use of non lethal protective devices assigned to crew members whose use is authorised by the member state.. e understanding of behaviour of terrorists so as to facilitate the ability of crew members to cope with hijacker behaviour and passenger responses.. f in case where cabin crew are required, live situational training exercises regarding various threat conditions.. g flight crew compartment procedures to protect the aircraft.. h aircraft search procedures, in accordance with regulation ec no 300/2008, including identification of prohibited articles. and. i guidance on the least risk bomb locations.
Question 240-9 : Below is an extract from an aeroplane mel concerning the operational procedure associated with the failure of one or two autopilots. the aeroplane is dispatched with one autopilot inoperative.flight preparation/limitations..when one autopilot is inoperative.maximum landing capability is fail passive ?
There is no effect.
Looking at the answers 'the flight must be conducted outside of rvsm airspace' > incorrect. rvsm requires one autopilot to be working, so there is no effect of the single failure.'the aeroplane is all passive rvsm compliant' > incorrect. 'passive rvsm compliant' the aircraft is rvsm compliant not sure about the use of 'passive'.'rnp ar operations are not permitted' > incorrect. rnp ar operations strictly below 0.3 nm are not permitted, but other rnp ar operations are allowed.'there is no effect' > correct. the question asks 'what is the effect on the rvsm capability of the aeroplane with one autopilot inoperative ' there is no effect on rvsm capability with this failure.according to easa amc & gm annex v part spa c prior to rvsm airspace entry 1 the following equipment should be operating normally at entry into rvsm airspace i two primary altitude measurement systems. a cross check between the primary altimeters should be made. a minimum of two will need to agree within ±60 m ±200 ft. failure to meet this condition will require that the altimetry system be reported as defective and air traffic control atc notified.. ii one automatic altitude control system.. iii one altitude alerting device. and. iv operating transponder.
Question 240-10 : A flight data monitoring system, which is integrated in the operator's management system, must be established for aircraft with a maximum certified take off mass of more than… ?
27 000 kg.
One of many magic numbers that you need to memorise for this exam. no real understanding is required, for example just remember... fdm system 27 000 kg. inter phone 15 000 kg. flight data recorder 5700 kg. wind shield wipers 5700 kg etc.......easa air ops..regulation eu 2015/1329..oro.aoc.130 flight data monitoring – aeroplanes.. a the operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme, which shall be integrated in its management system, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take off mass of more than 27 000 kg... b the flight data monitoring programme shall be non punitive and contain adequate safeguards to protect the source s of the data.
Question 240-11 : In accordance with ops regulations, refuelling with non wide cut fuel performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft is acceptable provided, among other conditions… ?
The ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear.
Looking at the answers 'the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear.' > correct. the regulations require an evacuation to use at least 50% of the exits. the use of an air bridge or stairs allows for evacuation, otherwise the area must be clear for slide deployment. this allows the right hand side of the aircraft to be used for refueling, baggage loading, loading of catering etc, which blocks some evacuation areas.'all flight crew remain at their station.' > incorrect. the minimum required number of cabin crew should be on board and be prepared for an immediate emergency evacuation, but there is no need for all flight crew to be at their station.'the fire brigade truck is close to the aircraft, ready for fire fighting.' > incorrect. the fire brigade do not attend an aircraft refueling during normal operations. at major airports in particular, this would require a lot of fire trucks 'all the aircraft doors are completely open.' > incorrect. 50% of the exits must be available, not all doors being open.easa air ops.regulation eu no 965/2012.amc1 cat.op.mpa.195 refueling/defueling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking.operational procedures — general a when refueling/defueling with passengers on board, ground servicing activities and work inside the aircraft, such as catering and cleaning, should be conducted in such a manner that they do not create a hazard and allow emergency evacuation to take place through those aisles and exits intended for emergency evacuation. b the deployment of integral aircraft stairs or the opening of emergency exits as a prerequisite to refueling is not necessarily required.operational procedures — aeroplanes. c operational procedures should specify that at least the following precautions are taken 1 one qualified person should remain at a specified location during fueling operations with passengers on board. this qualified person should be capable of handling emergency procedures concerning fire protection and firefighting, handling communications, and initiating and directing an evacuation. 2 two way communication should be established and should remain available by the aeroplane's inter communication system or other suitable means between the ground crew supervising the refueling and the qualified personnel on board the aeroplane. the involved personnel should remain within easy reach of the system of communication. 3 crew, personnel and passengers should be warned that re/defueling will take place. 4 ‘fasten seat belts’ signs should be off. 5 ‘no smoking’ signs should be on, together with interior lighting to enable emergency exits to be identified. 6 passengers should be instructed to unfasten their seat belts and refrain from smoking. 7 the minimum required number of cabin crew should be on board and be prepared for an immediate emergency evacuation. 8 if the presence of fuel vapour is detected inside the aeroplane, or any other hazard arises during re/defueling, fuelling should be stopped immediately. 9 the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas should be kept clear at doors where stairs are not in position for use in the event of evacuation. and 10 provision is made for a safe and rapid evacuation.
Question 240-12 : A flight via the shannon gander great circle with no mnps certification can be planned… ?
At fl280 or less.
..north atlantic mnpsa operations manual..minimum navigation performance specification airspace..the vertical dimension of mnps airspace is between fl285 and fl420 i.e. in terms of normally used cruising levels, from fl290 to fl410 inclusive...the lateral dimensions include the following control areas ctas..reykjavik..shanwick, gander and santa maria oceanic..new york oceanic north of 27°n but excluding the area west of 60°w and south of 38°30'n...shannon gander is within mnps airspace. an aircraft with no mnps certification must fly below fl285 not allowed to fly in mnps airspace => at fl 280 or below.
Question 240-13 : In accordance with ops regulations, if the flight is to be carried out at fl 290, demonstration concerning oxygen equipment must be completed before ?
Take off.
Easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..amc1 cat.op.mpa.170 passenger briefing..passenger briefing..passenger briefings should contain the following.. a before take off.. 1 passengers should be briefed on the following items, if applicable.. i any cabin secured aspects, e.g. required position of seatbacks, tray tables, footrests, window blinds, etc. as applicable... ii emergency lighting floor proximity escape path markings, exit signs... iii correct stowage of hand baggage and the importance of leaving hand baggage behind in case of evacuation... iv the use and stowage of portable electronic devices, including in flight entertainment ife systems... v the location and presentation of the safety briefing card, the importance of its contents and the need for passengers to review it prior to take off. and.. vi compliance with ordinance signs, pictograms or placards, and crew member instructions. and.. 2 passengers should receive a demonstration of the following.. i the use of safety belts or restraint systems, including how to fasten and unfasten the safety belts or restraint systems... ii the location of emergency exits... iii the location and use of oxygen equipment, if required. passengers should also be briefed to extinguish all smoking materials when oxygen is being used. and.. iv the location and use of life jackets if required... 3 passengers occupying seats with direct access to emergency exits not staffed by cabin crew members should receive an additional briefing on the operation and use of the exit.
Question 240-14 : According to ops regulations, a pilot is not assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certificated crew, either as pilot flying or pilot non flying unless he/she has carried out ?
3 take offs and 3 landings in the previous 90 days, as pilot flying in an aeroplane or in a flight simulator of the same type/class.
Basically for currency 3 take offs3 landing3 months 90 days note the 6 take offs / landings is for the initial type rating, along with the skills test. easa aircrew.fcl.060 recent experience b aeroplanes, helicopters, powered lift aircraft and airships. a pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or to carry passengers 1 as pic or co pilot unless he/she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 takeoffs, approaches and landings in an aircraft of the same type or class or an ffs representing that type or class. the 3 take offs and landings shall be performed in either multi pilot or single pilot operations, depending on the privileges held by the pilot. and. 2 as pic at night unless he/she i has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 1 take off, approach and landing at night as a pilot flying in an aircraft of the same type or class or an ffs representing that type or class. or. ii holds an ir.
Question 240-15 : In accordance with ops regulations, for a pressurised aeroplane, during and following an emergency descent, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with a minimum supplemental oxygen quantity during 1. the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is ?
1, 2, 3, 4.
Easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..cat.ide.a.235 supplemental oxygen – pressurised aeroplanes.. a pressurised aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft shall be equipped with supplemental oxygen equipment that is capable of storing and dispensing the oxygen supplies in accordance with table 1..table 1..oxygen minimum requirements for pressurised aeroplanes... . . . supply for. . . duration and cabin pressure altitude. . . . . 1. occupants of flight.. crew compartment.. seats on flight crew.. compartment duty. . . a the entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13 000 ft... b the remainder of the flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds.. 10 000 ft but does not exceed 13 000 ft, after the initial 30 minutes at these.. altitudes, but in no case less than.. 1 30 minutes’ supply for aeroplanes certified to fly at altitudes not.. exceeding 25 000 ft. and.. 2 2 hours’ supply for aeroplanes certified to fly at altitudes of more.. than 25 000 ft.. . . . . 2. required cabin crew.. members. . . a the entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13 000 ft,.. but not less than 30 minutes’ supply... b the remainder of the flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds.. 10 000 ft but does not exceed 13 000 ft, after the initial 30 minutes at these.. altitudes.. . . . . 3. 100 % of passengers 1. . . the entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15 000 ft, but in.. no case less than 10 minutes’ supply.. . . . . 4. 30 % of passengers 1. . . the entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14 000 ft but.. does not exceed 15 000 ft.. . . . . 5. 10 % of passengers 1. . . the remainder of the flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds.. 10 000 ft but does not exceed 14 000 ft, after the initial 30 minutes at these.. altitudes.. . . .... . . . 1 passenger numbers in table 1 refer to passengers actually carried on board, including persons younger.. than 24 months.
Question 240-16 : According to ops regulations, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a… ?
Maximum certificated take off mass of more than 5700 kg
Easa air ops.regulation eu no 965/2012.cat.ide.a.120 equipment to clear windshieldaeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5700 kg shall be equipped at each pilot station with a means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation.
Question 240-17 : According to ops regulations, in order to be operated ifr or at night in areas with potentially hazardous weather conditions, an aeroplane must be equipped with an airborne weather radar when the aeroplane is 1 – pressurised.2 – non pressurised with a maximum take off mass of more than 5700 kg.3 – ?
1, 2, 3
Easa air ops.regulation eu no 965/2012.cat.ide.a.160 airborne weather detecting equipmentthe following shall be equipped with airborne weather detecting equipment when operated at night or in imc in areas where thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions, regarded as detectable with airborne weather detecting equipment, may be expected to exist along the route a pressurised aeroplanes.. b non pressurised aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5700 kg. and. c non pressurised aeroplanes with an mopsc of more than nine.
Question 240-18 : According to ops regulations, an operator must select two destination alternates when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination, or any combination thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima, during a period… ?
Commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival.
You need 2 destination alternates if the destination weather is below planning minima +/ 1 hour from the eta, or...you have no met information for the destinationeasa air ops.regulation eu 2017/363.cat.op.mpa.180 selection of aerodromes — aeroplanes c the operator shall select two destination alternate aerodromes when 1 the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima. or. 2 no meteorological information is available
Question 240-19 : According to ops regulations, what is the planning flight preparation minima for a destination alternate with a cat ii approach available ?
Cat 1 rvr.
Easa air ops.regulation eu no 965/2012.cat.op.mpa.185 planning minima for ifr flights — aeroplanes a planning minima for a take off alternate aerodrome the operator shall only select an aerodrome as a take off alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable landing minima specified in accordance with cat.op.mpa.110. the ceiling shall be taken into account when the only approach operations available are non precision approaches npa and/or circling operations. any limitation related to oei operations shall be taken into account. b planning minima for a destination aerodrome other than an isolated destination aerodrome the operator shall only select the destination aerodrome when 1 the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable planning minima as follows i rvr/visibility vis specified in accordance with cat.op.mpa.110. and. ii for an npa or a circling operation, the ceiling at or above mdh. or 2 two destination alternate aerodromes are selected. c planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome, isolated aerodrome, fuel en route alternate fuel era aerodrome, en route alternate era aerodrome the operator shall only select an aerodrome for one of these purposes when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima in table 1.table 1.planning minimadestination alternate aerodrome, isolated destination aerodrome, fuel era and era aerodrometype of approachplanning minimacat ii and iiicat i rvrcat inpa rvr/vis ceiling shall be at or above mdhnpanpa rvr/vis + 1000 m ceiling shall be at or above mdh + 200 ftcirclingcircling
Question 240-20 : According to ops regulations, the flight preparation planning minima for a destination alternate with a cat i approach available is… ?
Non precision minima rvr and the ceiling at or above mdh / dh.
.note these minima are out of date since 2023 but this is an older question pre dating this change.comission regulation eu no 965/2012cat.op.mpa.185 planning minima for ifr flights — aeroplanestype of approach availableplanning minimacat ii & iiicat icat inon precisionnon precision+1000 m / 200 ftcirclingcircling for planning purposes, you must find weather forecasts that would allow the lesser approach to work. this means that on arrival, with the superior approach available to you, you have a safety factor of being able to make a successful approach and landing.
Question 240-21 : A minimum obstacle clearance altitude moca is defined as 8300 feet. the maximum terrain or obstacle at the area of applicability of this moca is… ?
6280 feet.
Easa air ops.gm1 cat.op.mpa.145 a establishment of minimum flight altitudes.minimum flight altitudes a the following are examples of some of the methods available for calculating minimum flight altitudes.. b kss formula 1 minimum obstacle clearance altitude moca i moca is the sum of a the maximum terrain or obstacle elevation, whichever is higher. plus. b 1000 ft for elevation up to and including 6000 ft. or. c 2000 ft for elevation exceeding 6000 ft rounded up to the next 100 ft ii the lowest moca to be indicated is 2000 ft.based on the provided icao table, the minimum obstacle clearance is 2000 feet. by subtracting this value from 8300 feet, we get 6300 feet. therefore, the closest obstacle is estimated to be at a distance of approximately 6280 feet.
Question 240-22 : According to ops regulations, who is responsible for establishing aerodrome operating minima, including non precision approaches, for each aerodrome planned to be used for commercial purposes ?
The operator
Easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..cat.op.mpa.110 aerodrome operating minima.. a the operator shall establish aerodrome operating minima for each departure, destination or alternate aerodrome planned to be used. these minima shall not be lower than those established for such aerodromes by the state in which the aerodrome is located, except when specifically approved by that state. any increment specified by the competent authority shall be added to the minima.
Question 240-23 : An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with navigation/position lights for flights… ?
By night.
Navigation lights... must be used at night. may be used in the day...no nav lights = no night flight....icao annex 2..chapter 3. general rules..3.2.3 lights to be displayed by aircraft..3.2.3.1 except as provided by 3.2.3.5, from sunset to sunrise or during any other period which may be prescribed by the appropriate authority all aircraft in flight shall display..a anti collision lights intended to attract attention to the aircraft. and..b navigation lights intended to indicated the relative path of the aircraft to an observer and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights...note. lights fitted for other purposes, such as landing lights and airframe floodlights, may be used in addition to the anti collison lights specified in the airworthiness manual, volume ii doc 9760 to enhance aircraft conspicuity.
Question 240-24 : According to ops regulations, an operator shall not operate a turbine propeller powered aeroplane with a maximum certificated take off mass in excess of 5700 kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine seats or a turbojet powered aeroplane unless it is equipped ?
Deviating from a preselected altitude.
The altitude alerting system is covered fully in the instruments syllabus. this system will alert the pilot both visually and aurally when approaching a selected altitude during climb / descent. typically get a 'c' note chime at 900 ft to go.deviating from a selected altitude. again the 'c' chime at a 300 ft deviation level bust.easa air ops.regulation eu no 965/2012.cat.ide.a.140 altitude alerting system a the following aeroplanes shall be equipped with an altitude alerting system 1 turbine propeller powered aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5700 kg or having an mopsc of more than nine. and. 2 aeroplanes powered by turbo jet engines. b the altitude alerting system shall be capable of 1 alerting the flight crew when approaching a preselected altitude. and. 2 alerting the flight crew by at least an aural signal, when deviating from a preselected altitude. c notwithstanding a , aeroplanes with an mctom of 5700 kg or less, having an mopsc of more than nine, first issued with an individual cofa before 1 april 1972 and already registered in a member state on 1 april 1995 are exempted from being equipped with an altitude alerting system.
Question 240-25 : According to ops regulations, the correct definition of window of circadian low wocl , is the period between… ?
02.00 hours and 05.59 hours.
Numbers to know for the exam 02 00 04 59 = night duty02 00 05 59 = window of circadian low wocl the clock’s circadian circa meaning around, dia meaning day pattern programs the body for wakefulness during the day and sleep at night. this circadian system repeats this pattern on a daily basis. certain hours of the 24 hour cycle — that is, roughly 0200 to 0600 for individuals adapted to a usual day wake/night sleep schedule , is called the window of circadian low wocl — this is a time when the body is programmed to sleep, and during which alertness and performance are degraded.easa air ops.oro.ftl.105 definitions 28 window of circadian low 'wocl' means the period between 02 00 and 05 59 hours in the time zone to which a crew member is acclimatised.
Question 240-26 : According to ops regulations, 'airport standby' will count in full for the purposes of cumulative… ?
Duty hours.
Looking at the answer options 'recovery hours' > incorrect. this is not a valid term in this subject.'rest hours' > incorrect. a standby is a period of time in which the crew must be contactable and ready to deploy. a rest period is the exact opposite of this.'flight duty hours' > incorrect. only applies if the crew is actually called upon to operate an aircraft.'duty hours' > correct. duty is doing anything at all for the operator, for example flying the aircraftairport standbypositioningtraining for example in the simulatoroffice duties etc...easa air ops.regulation eu no 83/2014.oro.ftl.225 standby and duties at the airportif an operator assigns crew members to standby or to any duty at the airport, the following shall apply in accordance with the certification specifications applicable to the type of operation a standby and any duty at the airport shall be in the roster and the start and end time of standby shall be defined and notified in advance to the crew members concerned to provide them with the opportunity to plan adequate rest.. b a crew member is considered on airport standby from reporting at the reporting point until the end of the notified airport standby period.. c airport standby shall count in full as duty period for the purpose of points oro.ftl.210 and oro.ftl.235.. d any duty at the airport shall count in full as duty period and the fdp shall count in full from the airport duty reporting time. e the operator shall provide accommodation to the crew member on airport standby.....
Question 240-27 : 'night duty' is a duty period encroaching any portion of the period, in the time zone to which the crew is acclimatised, between… ?
02 00 and 04 59 hours.
Numbers to know for the exam... 02 00 04 59 = night duty. 02 00 05 59 = window of circadian low wocl....easa air ops..oro.ftl.105 definitions.. 9 ‘night duty’ means a duty period encroaching any portion of the period between 02 00 and 04 59 in the time zone to which the crew is acclimatised.
Question 240-28 : The total duty period to which a crew member may be assigned shall not exceed… ?
60 duty hours in any 7 consecutive days.
Duty periods... . . 60 hours. 7 days. . . 110 hours. 14 days. . . 190 hours. 28 days. . ....easa air ops..regulation eu no 83/2014..oro.ftl.210 flight times and duty periods.. a the total duty periods to which a crew member may be assigned shall not exceed.. 1 60 duty hours in any 7 consecutive days... 2 110 duty hours in any 14 consecutive days. and.. 3 190 duty hours in any 28 consecutive days, spread as evenly as practicable throughout that period... b the total flight time of the sectors on which an individual crew member is assigned as an operating crew member shall not exceed.. 1 100 hours of flight time in any 28 consecutive days... 2 900 hours of flight time in any calendar year. and.. 3 1000 hours of flight time in any 12 consecutive calendar months... c post flight duty shall count as duty period. the operator shall specify in its operations manual the minimum time period for post flight duties.
Question 240-29 : The minimum rest period for flight crew before undertaking a flight duty period fdp away from the home base is at least as long as the preceding duty period... ?
Or 10 hours, whichever is greater.
Good to know for the exam 'at home half a day, less when away...'... at home base 12 hours or preceding duty length, if longer.. away 10 hours or preceding duty length, if longer....the extra time at home base allows for travel time to and from your home. down route, you can be booked in accomodation near to the airport, thus minimising the travel time....easa air ops..regulation eu no 83/2014..oro.ftl.235 rest periods.. a minimum rest period at home base... 1 the minimum rest period provided before undertaking an fdp starting at home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period, or 12 hours, whichever is greater... 2 by way of derogation from point 1 , the minimum rest provided under point b applies if the operator provides suitable accommodation to the crew member at home base... b minimum rest period away from home base...the minimum rest period provided before undertaking an fdp starting away from home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period, or 10 hours, whichever is greater. this period shall include an 8 hour sleep opportunity in addition to the time for travelling and physiological needs.
Question 240-30 : According to ops regulations, an operator must select a take off alternate… ?
If it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for meteorological or performance reasons.
Icao annex 6..chapter 1. definitions..alternate aerodrome. an aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing where the necessary services and facilities are available, where aircraft performance requirements can be met and which is operational at the expected time of use. alternate aerodromes include the following..take off alternate. an alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure...en route alternate. an alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route...destination alternate. an alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing...note. the aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en route or a destination alternate aerodrome for that flight.
Question 240-31 : According to ops regulations, for an ifr flight, the selection of a destination alternate is not required when… ?
The destination is isolated.
Note this question starts to overlap with flight planning, but here in ops it is kept quite simple, covering just basic regulations.you must have one destination alternate unless1. the destination aerodrome is isolated, or2. the destination aerodromeis a flight time of less than 6 hourshas two separate runwaysceiling is +2000 ft / circling +500 ftvisibility is 5 km or moreeasa air ops.regulation eu 2017/363.cat.op.mpa.180 selection of aerodromes — aeroplanes.... b the operator shall select at least one destination alternate aerodrome for each instrument flight rules ifr flight unless the destination aerodrome is an isolated aerodrome or 1 the duration of the planned flight from take off to landing or, in the event of in flight replanning in accordance with cat.op.mpa.150 d , the remaining flying time to destination does not exceed six hours. and. 2 two separate runways are available and usable at the destination aerodrome and the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that, for the period from one hour before until one hour after the expected time of arrival at the destination aerodrome, the ceiling will be at least 2000 ft or circling height + 500 ft, whichever is greater, and the ground visibility will be at least 5 km.
Question 240-32 : The abbreviation 'ots' stands for… ?
Organised track system.
North atlantic operations and airspace manual..chapter 2 the organised track system ots..2.1 general..2.1.1 as a result of passenger demand, time zone differences and airport noise restrictions, much of the north atlantic nat air traffic contributes to two major alternating flows a westbound flow departing europe in the morning, and an eastbound flow departing north america in the evening. the effect of these flows is to concentrate most of the traffic uni directionally, with peak westbound traffic crossing the 30w longitude between 1130 utc and 1900 utc and peak eastbound traffic crossing the 30w longitude between 0100 utc and 0800 utc...2.1.2 the flight levels normally associated with the ots are fl310 to fl400 inclusive. these flight levels, and their use have been negotiated and agreed by the nats ats providers and are published as the flight level allocation scheme flas. see attachment 5. the flas also determines flight levels available for traffic routing partly or wholly outside of the ots as well as flights operating outside of the valid time periods of the ots. often referred to as transition times’...2.1.3 the hours of validity of the two organised track systems ots are as follows.. westbound day time ots 1130 utc to 1900 utc at 30°w.. eastbound night time ots 0100 utc to 0800 utc at 30°w
Question 240-33 : According to ops regulations, for two engined aeroplanes in performance class b or c without an etops approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the less of the distance flown at the one engine inoperative cruise speed in… ?
120 minutes or 300 nm
Maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two engined aeroplanes without an etops approval... . . . class a.. >20 seats, >45,360kg. . 60 minutes. . . . class a..
Question 240-34 : According to ops regulations, without an etops approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two engined aeroplanes in performance class a, with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more, is the distance flown in… ?
60 min at oei speed.
Easa air ops..regulation eu 2019/1387..cat.op.mpa.140 maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two engined aeroplanes without an etops approval..a unless approved by the competent authority in accordance with annex v part spa , subpart f, the operator shall not operate a two engined aeroplane over a route that contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, under standard conditions in still air, than..1 for performance class a aeroplanes with either..i a maximum operational passenger seating configuration mopsc of 20 or more. or..ii a maximum take off mass of 45 360 kg or more,..the distance flown in 60 minutes at the one engine inoperative oei cruising speed determined in accordance with b...2 for performance class a aeroplanes with..i an mopsc of 19 or less. and..ii a maximum take off mass less than 45 360 kg,..the distance flown in 120 minutes or, subject to approval by the competent authority, up to 180 minutes for turbo jet aeroplanes, at the oei cruise speed determined in accordance with b...3 for performance class b or c aeroplanes..i the distance flown in 120 minutes at the oei cruise speed determined in accordance with b. or..ii 300 nm, whichever is less.
Question 240-35 : According to ops regulations, what are the circling approach planning minima for an etops en route alternate aerodrome ?
Rvr/vis + 1500 m, mda/h + 400 ft.
Easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..spa.etops.115 etops en route alternate aerodrome planning minima.. a the operator shall only select an aerodrome as an etops en route alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that, between the anticipated time of landing until one hour after the latest possible time of landing, conditions will exist at or above the planning minima calculated by adding the additional limits of table 1... b the operator shall include in the operations manual the method for determining the operating minima at the planned etops en route alternate aerodrome...table 1..planning minima for the etops en route alternate aerodrome... . . . type of approach. . . planning minima. . . . . precision approach. . . da/h + 200 ft rvr/vis + 800 m 1. . . . . non precision approach or circling approach. . . mda/h + 400 ft 1 rvr/vis + 1500 m. . . ... 1 vis visibility. mda/h minimum descent altitude/height.
Question 240-36 : An adequate etops en route alternate aerodrome should be available within the operator's approved diversion time… ?
Or a diversion time based on the mel generated serviceability status of the aeroplane, whichever is shorter.
If an operator does not hold an etops approval, then any twin engined operation must remain within 60 minutes of an alternate aerodrome.with etops approval, this time can be increased up to the limit of the etops approved diversion time. however, if the aircraft has a system failure, the mel could limit this. the mel may still allow dispatch and for the flight to happen, but due to the nature of the item affected, for safety, could limit the distance to an alternate aerodrome.note the mel is found in part b of the ops manual, and not in the afm.easa air ops.regulation eu no 965/2012.spa.etops.110 etops en route alternate aerodrome a an etops en route alternate aerodrome shall be considered adequate, if, at the expected time of use, the aerodrome is available and equipped with necessary ancillary services such as air traffic services ats , sufficient lighting, communications, weather reporting, navigation aids and emergency services and has at least one instrument approach procedure available. b prior to conducting an etops flight, the operator shall ensure that an etops en route alternate aerodrome is available, within either the operator’s approved diversion time, or a diversion time based on the mel generated serviceability status of the aeroplane, whichever is shorter. c the operator shall specify any required etops en route alternate aerodrome s in the operational flight plan and ats flight plan.
Question 240-37 : For commercial air transport operations, who establishes aerodrome/heliport operating minima for each departure, destination, or alternate aerodrome/heliport planned to be used ?
The operator
Another question that can be answered with the operator establishesthe competent authority approveseasa air ops.regulation eu no 965/2012.cat.op.mpa.110 aerodrome operating minima a the operator shall establish aerodrome operating minima for each departure, destination or alternate aerodrome planned to be used. these minima shall not be lower than those established for such aerodromes by the state in which the aerodrome is located, except when specifically approved by that state. any increment specified by the competent authority shall be added to the minima.
Question 240-38 : For commercial air transport operations, who approves the method for establishing minimum flight altitudes ?
The competent authority
In the operational procedures subject, a good rule for answering questions is that... the operator establishes. the competent authority approves...using this simple rule 'who approves the method for establishing minimum flight altitudes ' answer the competent authority....easa air ops..regulation eu no 965/2012..cat.op.mpa.145 establishment of minimum flight altitudes.. a the operator shall establish for all route segments to be flown.. 1 minimum flight altitudes that provide the required terrain clearance, taking into account the requirements of subpart c. and.. 2 a method for the flight crew to determine those altitudes... b the method for establishing minimum flight altitudes shall be approved by the competent authority... c where the minimum flight altitudes established by the operator and a state overflown differ, the higher values shall apply.
Question 240-39 : The visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway/fato that is not suitably located for a straight in approach is the definition of… ?
Circling.
A circling approach is the visual phase of an instrument approach, bringing an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight in approacha visual approach is an approach when part or all of an instrument approach procedure is omitted and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrainnote fato is the 'final approach and take off area' icao doc 8168.chapter 7 visual manoeuvring circling area.7.1 purpose7.1.1 visual manoeuvring circling is the term used to describe the phase of flight after an instrument approach has been completed. it brings the aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight in approach, i.e. one where the criteria for alignment or descent gradient cannot be met.
Question 240-40 : Flight crew members flying for a commercial air transport operator are to complete a line check as part of their recurrent training and checking. what is the validity period of this line check ?
12 calendar months
Good to know for the exam line check12 monthsoperator proficiency check opc normal ops6 monthsoperator proficiency check opc special ops12 monthseasa air ops.regulation eu 2015/140.oro.fc.230 recurrent training and checking c line check 1 each flight crew member shall complete a line check on the aircraft to demonstrate competence in carrying out normal line operations described in the operations manual. the validity period of the line check shall be 12 calendar months.. 2 notwithstanding oro.fc.145 a 2 , line checks may be conducted by a suitably qualified commander nominated by the operator, trained in crm concepts and the assessment of crm skills.
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