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Question 249-1 : A crew are about to take off from paris, france to washington, usa at the maximum performance limited take off mass. just before v1 during the take off, a master caution indicates a serious engine malfunction. the take off is aborted with maximum braking but without the use of reverse thrust, as ? [ Question security ]
Stop the aircraft on the runway, do not apply the parking brake and request fire vehicles to attend because of the possibility of a brake fire.
Brake system overheat conditiona braking system works by converting the kinetic energy of a moving aircraft into heat. to prevent damage to the tyres and undercarriage structure, the heat energy must be dissipated rapidly into the surrounding air. if this does not happen and the amount of heat generated becomes excessive, as can be the case after an aborted take off or following a landing at an excessive mass and/or speed, the tyres can overheat and burst. consequently, brake and/or wheel fires are likely to occur.the usual strategies for cooling hot brakes include giving consideration to an appropriate parking area i.e. use a remote location, away from other aircraft, buildings , parking into the wind.chocking the nose wheel and releasing the parking brake the brake temperatures may be so high that the brakes may weld together and, consequently, do not release even after the brakes cool down. andusing brake fans when available.in this case, any further taxiing and brake use will worsen the situation. therefore, the aircraft should be stopped and the parking brakes should not be applied.
Question 249-2 : Noise abatement shall not be a determining factor in the designation of a runway for take off when the..1. visibility is less than 3000 m..2. crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 10 kt..3. tailwind components, including gusts, exceeds 5 kt ?
3
Icao doc 8168. chapter 2 noise preferential runways and routes2.1.3 noise abatement should not be the determining factor in runway nomination under the following circumstances a if the runway surface conditions are adversely affected e.g. by snow, slush, ice or water, mud, rubber, oil or other substances.. b for landing in conditions when the ceiling is lower than 150 m 500 ft above aerodrome elevation, or for takeoff and landing when the horizontal visibility is less than 1.9 km 1 nm.. c when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 28 km/h 15 kt.. d when the tailwind component, including gusts, exceeds 9 km/h 5 kt. and. e when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when adverse weather conditions, e.g. thunderstorms, are expected to affect the approach or departure.
Question 249-3 : What is the required configuration for ditching ?
Pitch up, landing gear up.
Ditching..ditching an aircraft into the sea, a river, or a lake, is a manoeuvre that, by definition, cannot be practiced and may be extremely hazardous. it is only contemplated when no other realistic option remains in an emergency. it may be because there is a growing fire onboard and/or it is not possible to reach a runway, or succeed with an approach to those runways within reach and the situation does not favour or even allow an attempt at an off airport forced landing....the following is a list of generally accepted considerations and techniques for ditching... power on. if there is a choice in the matter, power on is preferable to power off for ditching. use of power allows more control of both the rate of descent and point at which touchdown is made.. reduce aircraft weight. a lighter aircraft allows a lower approach speed and will probably remain afloat higher in the water and for longer thus facilitating occupant evacuation. burning off or dumping fuel also has the advantage of increasing buoyancy in some aircraft types by creating a larger air mass held within the fuel tanks.. configuration. gear up is the optimum configuration for ditching. most manufacturers recommend the maximum deployment of available slats/flaps is desirable to minimise approach speed. the expected attitude of the aircraft in the water is always 'nose up'.. in ideal conditions smooth water or very long swells land into the wind. this will ensure the minimum possible touchdown speed and help minimise impact damage. where the swell is more marked, it may be advisable to ditch along the swell accepting a crosswind component and the higher touchdown speed, thus minimising the potential for nosing into the face of the rising swell. the best touchdown point is on the top of the swell with the second best on the back of the swell. aim to remain well clear of the advancing face of the swell.
Question 249-4 : If there is a suspicion of a bomb placed in the cabin what is used ?
Checklist.
Icao annex 17. chapter 13. security. 13.3 aeroplane search procedure checklistan operator shall ensure that there is on board a checklist of the procedures to be followed in searching for a bomb in case of suspected sabotage and for inspecting aeroplanes for concealed weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices when a well founded suspicion exists that the aeroplane may be the object of an act of unlawful interference. the checklist shall be supported by guidance on the appropriate course of action to be taken should a bomb or suspicious object be found and information on the least risk bomb location specific to the aeroplane.
Question 249-5 : When does the holdover time hot start in a one step de icing / anti icing process ?
At the start of the de icing / anti icing application.
Ground de icing / anti icing can be carried out either in one stage or two stages. de icing is reactive, removing icing. anti icing is pro active, stopping it from forming later on...one stage de icing / anti icing is where heated anti icing fluid is applied to the aircraft surfaces. the heat de ices the aircraft, and the fluid remains on the aircraft to provide sufficient anti icing capability. the holdover time begins at the start of the single stage...two stage de icing / anti icing means that the first stage applies a dedicated de icing fluid, and then the second stage applies a dedicated anti icing fluid. the holdover time begins at the start of the second anti icing stage...the given holdover time is the time that the aircraft is sufficiently clear of icing and contaminants for, and if the aircraft does not take off within this time, they must return to be de iced / anti iced again. it is usually found using a table, and depends on variables like temperature, type and severity of precipitation, type and concentration of fluids used.
Question 249-6 : An aircraft is flying behind a large aircraft to take pictures. it is slightly below and outboard of the wing of the preceding aircraft. what will be most likely to happen due to wake turbulence ?
It will roll towards the preceding aircraft.
. this question refers to the swirl effect and the downdraft caused by the wake of the large preceding aircraft.wake turbulence occurs due to the wingtip vortices formed by an aircraft, largest when heavy and flying slowly. the vortices are the effect of air travelling from the underside of the wing, around the wingtip, and onto the upper side of the wing. this means that the swirl direction is upwards at and outside the wingtips, but is downwards between the wingtips of an aircraft. this causes quite a significant downdraft, enough to make the vortices travel downwards generally, as shown in the second annex above.in the case of the trailing aircraft which is taking pictures, it would be represented by the first annex above although much closer to the lead aircraft , as its right wing would be in the downdraft area behind the large aircraft wing, but its left wing would be in the updraft area outside of the wingtip, therefore it would want to roll to the right, potentially uncontrollably.it is important to note that this question is slightly ambiguous on the exact location of the trailing aircraft, but that for a large range of positions, this same right roll effect would occur. most likely, severe turbulence would also be felt.
Question 249-7 : Which of these is one of the purposes of the cabin crew security training ?
Training cabin crew on different procedures about how to deal with a hijacker.
Icao annex 17. 13.4.1 the operator shall establish and maintain an approved security training programme which ensures crew members act in the most appropriate manner to minimize the consequences of acts of unlawful interference. as a minimum, this programme shall include the following elements. a determination of the seriousness of any occurrence.. b crew communication and coordination. c appropriate self defence responses.. d use of non lethal protective devices assigned to crew members whose use is authorized by the state of the operator.. e understanding of behaviour of terrorists so as to facilitate the ability of crew members to cope with hijacker behaviour and passenger responses.. f live situational training exercises regarding various threat conditions.. g flight crew compartment procedures to protect the aeroplane. and. h aeroplane search procedures and guidance on least risk bomb locations where practicablethis sets out that cabin crew are simply to be trained to deal with a security threat as best as possible, as it would be highly impractical to teach cabin crew to disarm bombs or fly aircraft.
Question 249-8 : Which of the following risks can be identified in a snowtam..1. snow..2. lightning..3. water..4. oil spills..5. windshear ?
1 and 3
Icao doc. 10066 . snowtam a special series notam given in a standard format providing a surface condition report notifying the presence or cessation of hazardous conditions due to snow, ice, slush, frost, standing water or water associated with snow, slush, ice or frost on the movement area.
Question 249-9 : When looking for a bomb on board an aircraft, what is to be used as the primary guideline ?
A search procedure checklist.
Icao annex 17. chapter 13. security. 13.3 aeroplane search procedure checklistan operator shall ensure that there is on board a checklist of the procedures to be followed in searching for a bomb in case of suspected sabotage and for inspecting aeroplanes for concealed weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices when a well founded suspicion exists that the aeroplane may be the object of an act of unlawful interference. the checklist shall be supported by guidance on the appropriate course of action to be taken should a bomb or suspicious object be found and information on the least risk bomb location specific to the aeroplane.
Question 249-10 : Shortly before touchdown at a busy airport you hear a few soft bangs coming from the aircraft's nose. after a normal landing and whilst exiting the runway to the taxiway you observe that the airspeed indicator still indicates an airspeed close to your landing reference speed.an immediate valid ?
Notify atc of a possible bird strike.
Looking at the answer options 'verify the aircraft speed by using a secondary means such as the gnss' > incorrect. the airspeed is stuck and this indicates a damaged pitot / static system. probably best to concentrate on taxiing and leave any check until parked on stand.'inform the airport operator that the reported local qnh is not correct' > incorrect. according to the question the airspeed is faulty, not the altimeter reading. besides, if the qnh was in doubt you would inform atc and not the airport operator.'verify if the altimeter displays the correct airport reference altitude' > incorrect. the failure of the airspeed reading indicates a block of the pitot tube, and not necessarily of the static port. if the static is damaged too then it's most likely to read the airport elevation anyway.'notify atc of a possible bird strike' > correct. the soft bangs mentioned in the question appear to be a bird strike and have damaged the pilot / static system causing the airspeed indication to jam.easa air ops regulation eu 2019/1384.cat. mpa.105 responsibilities of the commander d bird hazards and strikes 1 whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall inform the air traffic service ats unit as soon as flight crew workload allows.. 2 whenever an aircraft for which the commander is responsible suffers a bird strike that results in significant damage to the aircraft or the loss or malfunction of any essential service, the commander shall submit a written bird strike report after landing to the competent authority.
Question 249-11 : Civil air transport operators are required to establish and maintain an approved security training programme which ensures crew members ?
Act in the most appropriate manner to minimise the consequences of acts of unlawful interference.
Icao annex 17..13.4 training programmes..13.4.1 an operator shall establish and maintain an approved security training programme which ensures crew members act in the most appropriate manner to minimize the consequences of acts of unlawful interference. as a minimum, this programme shall include the following elements..a determination of the seriousness of any occurrence...b crew communication and coordination...c appropriate self defense responses...d use of non lethal protective devices assigned to crew members whose use is authorized by the state of the operator...e understanding of behaviour of terrorists so as to facilitate the ability of crew members to cope with hijacker behaviour and passenger responses...f live situational training exercises regarding various threat conditions...g flight crew compartment procedures to protect the aeroplane. and..h aeroplane search procedures and guidance on least risk bomb locations where practicable.
Question 249-12 : May a flight still be conducted, if during the pre flight check, one of the flight instruments in an aircraft is found to be inoperative ?
Yes, if the mel allows for the instrument in question to be inoperative.
The minimum equipment list mel is a document that lists the equipment that may be temporarily inoperative, subject to certain conditions, at the commencement of flight.this document is prepared by the operator for their own particular aircraft taking account of their aircraft configuration and all those individual variables that cannot be addressed at mel level, such as operating environment, route structure, geographic location, aerodromes where spare parts and maintenance capabilities are available, etc., in accordance with a procedure approved by the competent authority.in simple words, mel, the minimum equipment list, is a document that provides guidance to crew on whether an aircraft can be operated with a malfunction or not. for example, inoperative landing lights have no practical impact on daylight operations.
Question 249-13 : A pilot is taxiing out for take off on a very hot day and his/her aircraft is equipped with carbon brakes. the pilot is aware that it is going to be a long taxi and wants to maximise the brakes' ability to absorb energy in case of a rejected take off. to control the taxi speed, he/she decides to use ?
Firm brake applications, as carbon brake wear is determined by the number of times the brakes are applied.
Because the wear mechanisms are different between carbon and steel brakes, different taxi braking techniques are recommended for carbon brakes in order to maximize brake life.... steel brake wear is directly proportional to the kinetic energy absorbed by the brakes. maximum steel brake life can be achieved during taxi by using a large number of small, light brake applications, allowing some time for brake cooling between applications. high airplane gross weights and high brake application speeds tend to reduce steel brake life because they require the brakes to absorb a large amount of kinetic energy....... carbon brake wear is primarily dependent on the total number of brake applications — one firm brake application causes less wear than several light applications. maximum carbon brake life can be achieved during taxi by using a small number of long, moderately firm brake applications instead of numerous light brake applications. this can be achieved by allowing taxi speed to increase from below target speed to above target speed, then using a single firm brake application to reduce speed below the target and repeating if required, rather than maintaining a constant taxi speed using numerous brake applications. carbon brake wear is much less sensitive to airplane weight and speed than steel brake wear.
Question 249-14 : Two aeroplanes are arriving from the same direction to land at an airport where making a straight in approach and landing with a tailwind within operational limits will shorten the flight time by a few minutes. one of the aeroplanes has carbon brakes and the other steel brakes.which of the following ?
There can be a benefit in landing with a tailwind using carbon brakes as carbon brakes remain efficient at high temperatures and the wear is mainly determined by the number of applications.
Because the wear mechanisms are different between carbon and steel brakes, different taxi braking techniques are recommended for carbon brakes in order to maximize brake life.... steel brake wear is directly proportional to the kinetic energy absorbed by the brakes. maximum steel brake life can be achieved during taxi by using a large number of small, light brake applications, allowing some time for brake cooling between applications. high airplane gross weights and high brake application speeds tend to reduce steel brake life because they require the brakes to absorb a large amount of kinetic energy....... carbon brake wear is primarily dependent on the total number of brake applications — one firm brake application causes less wear than several light applications. maximum carbon brake life can be achieved during taxi by using a small number of long, moderately firm brake applications instead of numerous light brake applications. this can be achieved by allowing taxi speed to increase from below target speed to above target speed, then using a single firm brake application to reduce speed below the target and repeating if required, rather than maintaining a constant taxi speed using numerous brake applications. carbon brake wear is much less sensitive to airplane weight and speed than steel brake wear....landing with a tailwind will increase the landing distance, since the runway length is limited, it requires greater brake energy. wear mechanisms are different between carbon and steel brakes. in carbon brakes, one firm brake application causes less wear than several light applications but in steel brakes, maximum lifetime can be achieved by using a large number of small, light brake applications, allowing some time for cooling between applications. from this point of view, using carbon brakes when landing with a tailwind is more favorable.
Question 249-15 : Is there any case where a cat operator may operate within the constraints of the mmel instead of using an mel ?
Yes, if this arrangement is approved by the competent authority.
Easa air ops. regulation eu no 965/2012. aro.ops.205 minimum equipment list approval a when receiving an application for initial approval of a minimum equipment list mel or an amendment thereof from an operator, the competent authority shall assess each item affected, to verify compliance with the applicable requirements, before issuing the approval. b the competent authority shall approve the operator’s procedure for the extension of the applicable rectification intervals b, c and d, if the conditions specified in oro.mlr.105 f are demonstrated by the operator and verified by the competent authority. c the competent authority shall approve, on a case by case basis, the operation of an aircraft outside the constraints of the mel but within the constraints of the master minimum equipment list mmel , if the conditions specified in oro.mlr.105 are demonstrated by the operator and verified by the competent authority.the mmel is the most basic version of minimum equipment list. the operator creates a mel based on this, but must always either keep it the same or make it more restrictive. the operator can never make the mel less restrictive than the mmel, as this could be unsafe, allowing flight with less equipment than deemed safe by the manufacturer.
Question 249-16 : During the cockpit preparation of the first flight of the day, you’re reading the mel items effective for the aircraft you’re about to fly and it states that one of the two autopilots is inoperative. the respective mel item states that rnp ar approaches requiring less than 0.3 nm of accuracy are ?
Rnp ar approach is still allowed.
Generally, rnp ar approaches may require rnp below 0.3 it requires at least 0.1 and as a maximum 0.3. as per the information, the mel prohibits operations below rnp 0.3 with one autopilot inoperative. 'the respective mel item states that rnp ar approaches requiring less than 0.3 nm of accuracy are prohibited with 1 ap inoperative'.the question does not state which approach is planned and whether the rnp ap will require rnp below 0.3 or not, therefore the safest option would be 'rnp ar operations are not permitted.'however, we have recently received feedback which confirms that that option was not marked as correct. therefore, we have updated the correct option to 'rnp ar approach is still allowed.'. we suppose that the official question gives more info on the type of approach planned and whether it will require rnp below 0.3 or not.
Question 249-17 : A heavy aircraft has just landed and a light aircraft is taking off from the same runway from the opposite side. what is the minimum separation time ?
3 min
Icao doc 4444..chapter 5. separation methods and minima..5.8.5 opposite direction..when using wake turbulence categories contained in chapter 4, 4.9.1.1 for a heavier aircraft making a low or a missed approach and when the lighter aircraft is..a using an opposite direction runway for take off, or..b landing on the same runway in the opposite direction, or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by less than 760 m 2 500 ft the following minimum separations shall be used..1 between a heavy aircraft and a super aircraft 3 minutes...2 between a light or medium aircraft and a super aircraft 4 minutes...3 between a light or medium aircraft and a heavy aircraft 3 minutes.
Question 249-18 : Regulation ec no 300/2008 establishes common rules to protect civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference that jeopardise the security of civil aviation. who does this regulation apply to ?
All airports or parts of airports located in the territory of a member state, except for those used exclusively for military purposes.
Looking at the answers..'all airports or parts of airports located in the territory of a member state, except for those used exclusively for military purposes' > correct. the regulation applies to all parts of a civil airport and not for military, who of course have their own procedures...'all parts of airports, including those used exclusively for military purposes, located in the territory of a member state' > incorrect. this regulation is for civil airports and not for military...'airside movement areas of an airport only' > incorrect. this regulation is for all parts of a civil airport...'landside parts of an airport only' > incorrect. this regulation is for all parts of a civil airport....regulation ec no 300/2008 of the european parliament and of the council of 11 march 2008 on common rules in the field of civil aviation security and repealing regulation ec no 2320/2002..article 1 objectives..1. this regulation establishes common rules to protect civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference that jeopardise the security of civil aviation. it also provides the basis for a common interpretation of annex 17 to the chicago convention on international civil aviation...2. the means of achieving the objectives set out in paragraph 1 shall be.. a the setting of common rules and common basic standards on aviation security... b mechanisms for monitoring compliance...article 2 scope..1.this regulation shall apply to the following.. a all airports or parts of airports located in the territory of a member state that are not exclusively used for military purposes... b all operators, including air carriers, providing services at airports referred to in point a... c all entities applying aviation security standards that operate from premises located inside or outside airport premises and provide goods and/or services to or through airports referred to in point a.
Question 249-19 : Are cat operators required to provide security training for their flight and/or cabin crew ?
Yes, all such operators are required to provide this training for their crew members.
Regulation ec no 300/2008 of the european parliament and of the council..10. in flight security measures..1. without prejudice to the applicable aviation safety rules.. a unauthorised persons shall be prevented from entering the flight crew compartment during a flight... b potentially disruptive passengers shall be subjected to appropriate security measures during a flight...2. appropriate security measures such as training of flight crew and cabin staff shall be taken to prevent acts of unlawful interference during a flight...3. weapons, with the exception of those carried in the hold, shall not be carried on board an aircraft, unless the required security conditions in accordance with national laws have been fulfilled and authorisation has been given by the states involved...4. paragraph 3 shall also apply to in flight security officers if they carry weapons....icao annex 17..13.4 training programmes..13.4.1 an operator shall establish and maintain an approved security training programme which ensures crew members act in the most appropriate manner to minimize the consequences of acts of unlawful interference.
Question 249-20 : An aircraft is taxiing out to the runway for departure after a quick turnaround at geneva, switzerland lsgg , and freezing rain starts to fall. in this scenario, what effect might have on the planned take off ?
Ice may have formed on the pitot tubes, giving false airspeed indications. de icing and anti icing will therefore be required.
Aircraft on the ground, while parked or during ground operations, are susceptible to accumulation of ice accretions in conditions peculiar to ground operations in addition to many of the conditions that can be encountered in flight. it is necessary to avoid re contamination of the aircraft structure and systems after anti icing/de icing.flight, engine, and other instruments are subject to error if ice accretions exist on external probes, in pressure lines, or on areas forward of or adjacent to external probes. operational experience indicates that typical sources of error are icing of pitot static probes used for airspeed, altitude and engine pressure ratio measurements. during the pre flight inspections, the commander is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft structure is clear of all snow, ice accretion and frost which could affect the safety of the aircraft in flight. in case of doubt de ice.
Question 249-21 : Which of the icao's annex is related to security ?
Annex 17
Icao annexes . annex 1 personnel licensing . annex 2 rules of the air . annex 3 meteorological service for international air navigation . annex 4 aeronautical charts . annex 5 units of measurement to be used in air and ground operations . annex 6 operation of aircraft . annex 7 aircraft nationality and registration marks . annex 8 airworthiness of aircraft . annex 9 facilitation . annex 10 aeronautical telecommunications . annex 11 air traffic services . annex 12 search and rescue . annex 13 aircraft accident and incident investigation . annex 14 aerodromes . annex 15 aeronautical information services . annex 16 environmental protection . annex 17 security safeguarding international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference . annex 18 the safe transport of dangerous goods by air . annex 19 safety managemenet
Question 249-22 : Which of the following operational scenario indicates understanding of the 'clean aircraft concept' with respect to aircraft de / anti icing operations as determined by icao ?
After completion of ground de/anti icing, the pilot in command requests a close up visual inspection of the horizontal stabiliser upper surface, which is not visible from the ground.
.looking at the answer options 'on the aircraft horizontal surfaces an even layer of dry powder is present. the powder snow can be brushed off. when there is no precipitation, the pilot in command can decide to increase take off speed, to clear the aircraft of snow during the take off run' > incorrect..increasing the take off speed in order to attempt to clear snow from an aircraft is not a wise approach.'during ground operations with slush/snow present, the aircraft's flaps/slats should remain retracted/closed, preventing deposition of slush or snow and avoiding the need to de ice the aircraft' > incorrect..keeping flaps / slates retracted reduces contamination inside the wing structure but does not remove the need to de ice the aircraft.'after completion of ground de/anti icing with type ii or type iv fluid, the aircraft is required to be cleaned of any residual fluid in an aerodynamically quiet area before the next flight' > incorrect..anti icing fluid works by sticking to the airframe while on the ground. it makes no sense to clean it off prior to flight. the fluid is designed to shear from the airframe at speeds approaching rotation. 'after completion of ground de/anti icing, the pilot in command requests a close up visual inspection of the horizontal stabiliser upper surface, which is not visible from the ground' > correct..this is not always a practical thing to do, but the pilot can request a visual inspection of the airframe if conditions and the situtation require this.icao doc 9640.air operator1.5 the person responsible for the de icing/anti icing process must be clearly designated, trained and qualified. this person checks the aeroplane for the need to de ice, initiates de icing/anti icing if required, and is responsible for the correct and complete de icing/anti icing treatment of the aeroplane. the final responsibility for accepting the aeroplane after de icing/anti icing rests, however, with the pilot in command.
Question 249-23 : During an overwater flight, all engines on a commercial multi engined jet aircraft fail and you are in a state of emergency. you decide to make an emergency landing ditching. which of the following has the highest priority ?
Maintain control of the aircraft.
'aviate, navigate, communicate teaches pilots to fly the airplane first, ensuring its control and safety. then navigate, and once the situation is under control, communicate. we can employ a similar tactic if we face an emergency. it is the cabin crews' duty to prepare and secure the cabin for ditching and brief the passengers. pilots should focus on achieving a successful ditching.. as you can see, making pas to passengers 'communicate' comes last on the list of pilots' priorities, especially in an emergency situation.
Question 249-24 : There is a hijacker who just got in the flight crew compartment and they destroyed all the radio instruments. what should you do ?
Try to contact atc via cpdlc.
..firstly, according to this easa question, the radio equipment is not considered to include cpdlc. radio equipment is for voice comms whereas cpdlc is written text so both are communications systems but cpdlc is not 'radio' equipment...secondly, would it be practical to type a message on cpdlc during this event. most of us would say not, but there is an 'emer' selection on the cdplc as shown in the figure. this requires the press of just the relevant line select key to initiate....controller pilot datalink communications cpdlc using the fans 1/a network has become the primary means of communicating with atc in oceanic regions around the world and is also implemented in several domestic regions as well. one function of fans cpdlc no crew ever wants to have to use is emergency reporting. during an emergency, the flight crew would normally revert to voice communications. however, the crew may use cpdlc for emergency communications if it is either more expedient or if voice contact cannot be established...when a mayday or pan message is sent via cpdlc, the ads c emergency mode is automatically activated. an ads c periodic report is automatically transmitted and tagged as emergency to highlight the situation to atc. the emergency periodic reports continue to be transmitted until ads emergency is selected to off. ads emergency is located on the atc logon status page 2/2 figure 3. atc will respond with appropriate acknowledgements and clearances via cpdlc.
Question 249-25 : What affects the holdover time.1. precipitation. 2. wind. 3. temperature. 4. aircraft type ?
1, 2, 3.
Icao doc 9332..chapter 4. holdover time hot..4.2 hot is the estimated time the anti icing fluid will prevent the formation of ice and frost and the accumulation of snow on the protected treated surfaces of an aeroplane. these hots are generated by testing fluids under a variety of temperature and precipitation conditions that simulate the range of weather experienced in winter...4.3 numerous factors that can affect the de icing/anti icing performance and hots of de icing/anti icing fluids have been identified. these factors include, but are not limited by the following..a type and rate of precipitation...b ambient temperature...c relative humidity...d wind direction and velocity. including jet blast...e aeroplane surface skin temperature. and..f de icing/anti icing fluid type, fluid/water ratio, temperature.... . . caution.. owing to the many variables that can influence hots, the time of protection may be reduced or extended, depending on the intensity of the weather conditions. heavy precipitation, high moisture content, high wind velocity and jet blast can reduce hot below the lowest time in hot guidelines. hot may be reduced when aircraft skin temperature is lower than outside air temperature... weather conditions for which no hot guidelines exist are referenced in the hot guidelines.
Question 249-26 : You are flying an aircraft when suddenly your right engine and right side of the aircraft catches fire. you land and the fire fighting services start extinguishing the fire on the right side. the cabin crew are unable to establish contact with the flight deck. what is the right thing to do ?
Evacuate by the left side of the aircraft.
The captain will initiate an evacuation. however, if the situation is clearly catastrophic or the captain is unavailable following a catastrophic event, cabin crew can initiate the evacuation. there may be a time delay between the aircraft stopping and the evacuation command, as the flight crew are carrying out their drills.if an evacuation is planned and time permits, a thorough briefing and preparation of the crew and passengers improves the chances of a successful evacuation.flight crew preparations should include a review of pertinent checklists and any other actions to be accomplished. appropriate use of autobrakes should be discussed. if evacuating due to fire in windy conditions, consider positioning the airplane so the fire is on the downwind side.notify cabin crew of possible adverse conditions at the affected exits. the availability of various exits may differ for each situation. crewmembers must make the decision as to which exits are usable for the circumstances.in this case, if cabin crew observe smoke possibly fire coming from engine number 2 right engine , evacuation should be performed via the left side only.
Question 249-27 : An aircraft is forced to perform an emergency landing. the checklist after landing is as follows.parking brake set. engines shutdown. cabin evacuate..which of the following statements is correct ?
The checklist is used to ensure the outside of the aircraft is safe before evacuating passengers out of the relatively safe cabin.
When evacuation is required, the aircraft must be first secured against movement and all external hazards eliminated. this means that it is necessary to stop the aircraft and set the parking brake, if possible, as any accidental movement during evacuation could cause serious injuries to those just sliding out of the aircraft or those under it on the ground. engines, including the apu must be switched off to prevent people from being sucked in or burnt by hot exhaust gases, fuel valves shall be turned off to prevent fuel leak through severed lines usually automatically by pulling the fire handles, which disconnects all accessories such as hydraulic power, etc. it is also important, with most types, to depressurize the cabin to be able to open the door...the exact sequence of actions including the callouts to be used between the cockpit and the cabin and by the cabin crew to the passengers must be clearly described in omb.
Question 249-28 : What should cabin crew members do if they smell smoke in the cabin, but there is no visible sign of the source ?
Notify the pilots immediately.
It is important that cabin crewmembers be aware of indications of smoke, report them to the flight crewmembers and respond to. all crewmembers must take all reports of smoke in the cabin seriously. they must immediately identify the source of smoke, and take the appropriate actions in order to significantly minimize the risk of fire onboard the aircraft. it is wise to treat a smoke occurrence as fire, until it has been proven otherwise. the cabin crewmembers must remember that the development of an odour, or smoke, takes some time before it can be detected...the 'difficult' source of smoke..cabin crewmembers may have limited or no access to areas such as sidewall, ceiling panels, or air conditioning, and may have no way of visually monitoring them. if smoke comes from any of these areas, the cabin crewmembers must take the following actions... inform the flight crew. closely monitor the situation. prepare a fire extinguisher, protective breathing equipment pbe , fire gloves in case the situation deteriorates.
Question 249-29 : Observations of the prevailing meteorological conditions can help pilots decide whether to take off or to delay until conditions improve. the following meteorological conditions would indicate the presence of low level wind shear and would require a pilot to delay take off.1. precipitation falling ?
1, 2, 4 and 5.
Icao doc 9817 manual of low level windshear icao. recognition of wind shear. external met clues4.3.3 recognition of external met clues to the possible presence of low level wind shear near an airport permits the pilot to make an early decision to avoid an encounter by going around or by delaying the approach or take off until conditions improve. even if the decision is made to continue, the recognition of external wind shear signs should alert the pilot to pay close attention to the progress of the landing or takeoff by reference to the flight deck instruments. external clues that may be directly visible to the pilot include the following a strong, gusty surface winds, especially where the aerodrome is located near hills or where there are comparatively large buildings near the runway, indicating the possibility of local wind shear and turbulence.. b lenticular cloud smooth lens shaped altocumulus indicating the presence of standing waves, usually downwind from a mountain.. c virga, i.e. precipitation falling from the base of a cloud but evaporating before reaching the ground especially under convective cloud because downdrafts may still exist and reach the ground even though the precipitation itself has evaporated.. d roll cloud girding the base of a thunderstorm and advancing ahead of the rain belt, indicating the presence of a gust front.. e areas of dust raised by wind, particularly when in the form of a ring below convective clouds, indicating the presence of a downburst.. f wind socks responding to different winds.. g smoke plumes sheared, with upper and lower sections moving in different directions. and. h thunderstorms, which should always be assumed to have the capability of producing hazardous wind shear.the implication of any of the foregoing for landing and take off operations at an aerodrome would have to be assessed on a case by case basis, depending on the proximity of the phenomena to landing and take off corridors, etc.
Question 249-30 : A pilot is planning a flight to an airfield which is known to have a much higher concentration of birds than normal. this could present a danger to aircraft operations. what is the most probable source where the pilot can get information on this ?
Via a notam or atis.
The key to this question is the wording 'much higher concentration of birds than normal'.the aip would give information on the general situation at an airfield with a known high bird presence. in periods where the concentration is higher than normal, then pilots must be warned that they can expect a higher risk than the normal aip conditions, necessitating a notam.the aip normal bird activitynotam short term higher than usual bird activityatis the high bird activity would be included in an atis message to alert pilots of the danger
Question 249-31 : During a flight, some passengers report an unusual petroleum like smell in the cabin and some liquid leaking from a bag. it seems that the bag is carrying several containers of lighter fuel packed in a clear, sealable bag in accordance with the security regulations regarding the volume of liquids ?
Report the event as an occurrence involving undeclared dangerous goods.
An operator must report any occasion when undeclared or misdeclared dangerous goods are discovered in cargo or mail. such a report must be made to the appropriate authorities of the state of the operator and the state in which this occurred. an operator must also report any occasion when dangerous goods not permitted are discovered, either in the baggage or on the person, of passengers or crew members. such a report must be made to the appropriate authority of the state in which this occurred.source icao doc 9284 technical instructions reporting of undeclared or misdeclared dangerous goods.
Question 249-32 : When en route from cairo to larnaca, the flight crew is suddenly subjected to unlawful interference by two hijackers. the commander sets the transponder mode a code 7500 without being noticed. atc then asks the flight crew over the radio to confirm the code 7500. however, the flight crew does not ?
The use of code 7500 is intentional and correctly selected by the crew.
Icao annex 17. chapter 1 operation of transponders. 1.6 unlawful interference with aircraft in flight1.6.1 should an aircraft in flight be subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot in command shall endeavour to set the transponder to mode a code 7500 to give indication of the situation unless circumstances warrant the use of code 7700.1.6.2 a pilot, having selected mode a code 7500 and subsequently requested to confirm this code by atc in accordance with 1.1.5 shall, according to circumstances, either confirm this or not reply at all.note.— the absence of a reply from the pilot will be taken by atc as an indication that the use of code 7500 is not due to an inadvertent false code selection.
Question 249-33 : An aeroplane has been chartered to transport a group of passengers. catering is being loaded onto the aeroplane and it includes perishable food items that are being kept cold by packets of dry ice. during passenger boarding, one of the passengers, who is a chef, has food and dry ice in his/her cabin ?
Yes, the dry ice used for catering is part of the aeroplane equipment while the dry ice brought by the chef is controlled by the technical instructions for dangerous goods.
Dry ice is classed as dangerous goods dg class 9 miscellaneous. it can be... part of the aircraft catering equipment and is considered outside the dg instructions. carried on board by passengers / crew. in this way it is subject to the restrictions listed in the dg instructions, such as being limited to 2.5 kg per person....as part of the aircraft catering icao doc 9284..2.2 exceptions for dangerous goods of the operator...2.2.1 the instructions do not apply to..b dry ice intended for for use in food and beverage service aboard the aircraft...carried on by passengers / crew quantities not exceeding 2.5 kg per person when used to pack perishables in checked or carry on baggage, provided the baggage package permits the release of carbon dioxide gas. checked baggage must be marked 'dry ice' or 'carbon dioxide, solid' and with the net weight of dry ice or an indication there is 2.5 kg or less...as the dry ice melts it releases carbon dioxide and this can cause a sealed container to rupture as pressure increases.
Question 249-34 : A light aircraft is about to depart from a busy aerodrome. simultaneous runway operations for departure are in progress, and clearance delivery asks the pilot which runway he/she prefers for departure. considering the wind information given below, which runway should the pilot choose to reduce the ?
Runway 18
Learning objective 071.02.08.02.02 describe the wind conditions which are worst for wake turbulence near the ground.. note this question is not very realistic, but you just have to look past the ridiculousness and give the examiner what they want to hear, and remember that they are testing your knowledge of a very specific learning objective.wake turbulencewhenever an airplane generates lift, air spills over the wing tips from the high pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above them. this flow causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices. an aircraft generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take off to touchdown.pilots should be particularly alert in calm wind or light winds of 3 to 7 knots conditions and where the vortices could stay in the touchdown area, sink into your take off or landing path, or drift over a parallel runway. calm wind conditions are most dangerous as wake turbulence stagnates on the runway and is not blown to one side. runway 25r wake turbulence from the preceding aircraft or adjacent runway 25c could blow back onto the runway. runway 25c due to the calm wind conditions, vortices from the preceding aircraft will stagnate in the area of the runway. they might move outwards slowly, but this is still quite a dangerous situation to have. runway 25l the wind is coming from ahead and from the right westerly at 3 kt. the wake turbulence will be blown along the runway and the right hand vortices will get blown onto the runway. runway 18 the wind is blowing with a fairly high speed from the right, so the wake turbulence is most likely to clear.
Question 249-35 : Choose the statement which best describes the possible effects of initiating take off without clearing external surfaces of ice except as permitted in the flight manual. the effects of icing… ?
Are wide ranging, unpredictable and dependent on the individual aeroplane design.
Looking at the answers 'are potentially significant and dangerous for small aeroplanes but are not significant for large transport category aeroplanes'. > incorrect. icing affects all aircraft, regardless of their size.'are well understood and in general do not negatively affect performance or controllability during take off'. > incorrect. the effects of icing are unpredictable and can be significant and dangerous.'have been accounted for by the aircraft manufacturer so that suitable performance is assured'. > incorrect. suitable performance is not assured if an aircraft is contaminated.'are wide ranging, unpredictable and dependent on the individual aeroplane design'. > correct. this is taken directly from learning objective 071.02.02.02.01 which states 'explain that the effects of icing are wide ranging, unpredictable and dependent upon individual aircraft design. the magnitude of these effects is dependent upon many variables, but the effects can be both significant and dangerous.'icao doc 9640.chapter 2. the clean aircraft concept cac 2.3 during conditions conductive to aeroplane icing during operations, take off must not be attempted when ice, snow, slush or frost is present or adhering to the wings, propellers, control surfaces, engine inlets or other critical surfaces.
Question 249-36 : An aircraft is cruising at fl370 when the pilot suddenly starts feeling a slight discomfort in the ear and a popping sensation. what could be the cause ?
If the cabin altitude is also rising, there could be a pressurisation system failure.
When an aircraft is cruising at a high altitude, such as fl370, it is pressurized to maintain a comfortable and safe environment for passengers and crew. the cabin altitude is closely controlled to simulate a lower altitude, typically around 6000 to 8000 feet. if there is a failure in the pressurization system, the cabin altitude may start to increase. as the cabin altitude rises, the air pressure inside the aircraft decreases, and this can lead to discomfort in the ears.a narrow passage called the eustachian tube regulates air pressure in your ear. when a plane climbs or descends, the air pressure changes quickly, and your eustachian tube often doesn't react quickly enough. this difference in pressure between the middle ear and the cabin can result in the sensation of an 'ear pop'. the discomfort and 'popping' sensation in the ears are typically signs of the body adjusting to changes in pressure.'if the oxygen pressure is also dropping, there could be an oxygen system failure.' incorrect.the oxygen pressure is not relevant.'if the cabin pressure increases, it could be due to an entry door or cargo door opening.' incorrect.in this case, cabin pressure would decrease, not increase.
Question 249-37 : An aircraft is on the glideslope, on short final. the aircraft is not equipped with a windshear warning system and the pilot suspects that there is an increase in airspeed due to a microburst. what shall the pilot do ?
Initiate a go around.
How to cope with wind shearhere are the best ways a pilot can prevent a hazardous encounter with wind shear • know wind shear is there.. • know the magnitude of the change.. • be prepared to correct or go around immediately.windshear escapethere are three aspects of your windshear escape power, pitch and configuration. your objective is to extract maximum power from the engine and maximum lift from the wings. 1 power. start by setting maximum take off power. 2 pitch. pitch up— way up to the edge of a stall. hold the pitch angle until you get the first stall warning indication or stick shaker, then relax it just enough to stop the stall warning. then raise the nose a bit again until you again get the stall warning. repeat until you are clear of the downburst or microburst. we’re flying at the edge of the stall because that’s where the wing creates maximum lift. note that indicated airspeed, vertical speed and altimeter readings may be unreliable due to rapid changes in wind speed and atmospheric pressure. thus, it’s best to fly angle of attack. if your aircraft is not equipped with an angle of attack indicator, use the stall warning as discussed. 3 configuration. as previously stated, a windshear escape is not a normal climb or go around. thus, the aircraft configuration gear and flaps position should be maintained until you’re safely out of the burst. it is a fact that the aircraft will climb better when clean, but getting clean often sacrifices a little performance or altitude that you can’t afford. only handle the power and the yoke.
Question 249-38 : How can the term wake turbulence be described ?
The effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of the jet aircraft.
..wake turbulence is created whenever an airplane generates lift, as air spills over the wing tips from the high pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above them. this flow causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices. an aircraft generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take off until touchdown...wake turbulence is at its greatest when an aircraft is flying... heavy. slow. clean configuration...note any aircraft creates wake turbulence, not only jet aircraft, as suggested by the correct answer here...
Question 249-39 : During the loading of dangerous goods into an aircraft, you notice that a package is damaged. this package ?
Shall be removed from the aircraft, under the operator’s responsibility.
Looking at the answer options..may be transported by air, provided the content is inspected and found to be intact > incorrect. the package must be removed due to the hazard of dg, and the packaging must be inspected. it's not necessarily advised to inspect the contents, eg radioactive or toxic materials...may only be transported by air if it does not contain radioactive material > incorrect. any dg poses a risk to aircraft, not just radioactive material...shall be removed from the aircraft, under the operator’s responsibility > correct. on board the aircraft, this is the responsibility of the operator...shall be removed from the aircraft, under the shipper’s responsibility > incorrect. on board the aircraft, this is the responsibility of the operator, not the shipper....icao annex 18..8.4 inspection for damage or leakage..8.4.1 packages and overpacks containing dangerous goods and freight containers containing radioactive materials shall be inspected for evidence of leakage or damage before loading on an aircraft or into a unit load device. leaking or damaged packages, overpacks or freight containers shall not be loaded on an aircraft...8.4.2 a unit load service shall not be loaded aboard an aircraft unless the device has been inspected and found free from any evidence of leakage from, or damage to, any dangerous goods contained therein...8.4.3 where any package of dangerous goods loaded on an aircraft appears to be damaged or leaking, the operator shall remove such package from the aircraft, or arrange for its removal by an appropriate authority or organization, and thereafter shall ensure that the remainder of the consignment is in a proper condition for transport by air and that no other package has been contaminated.
Question 249-40 : In the event that an emergency landing must be initiated ?
Passengers should be advised of emergency actions they should take as appropriate to the situation.
Note the answers do not directly compare the priorty of advising atc with briefing the passengers...looking at the answers..'the aircraft must be landed as soon as possible, regardless of the suitability of the landing area' > incorrect. the suitability of the landing area will always be a consideration. for example, steering away from a built up area, towards open fields...'passengers should be advised of emergency actions they should take as appropriate to the situation' > correct. aviate, navigate & communicate. communication here will involve between the pilots, with cabin crew, with atc and with the passengers. the passenger brief could involve such items as brace positions, inflating life jackets outside the aircraft, use of emergency exits etc...'the pilots do not need to consider the possibility of hazard to persons or property on the ground' > incorrect. much like another answer, avoiding hazard to people on the ground, and to a lesser extent property is always a consideration. for example, steering away from a built up area, towards open fields...'atc must be advised as a first priority, before descending, in order to avoid loss of radio contact' > incorrect. aviate, navigate and communicate. advising atc is not the first priority. as someone who has had an engine fire and also a decompression among other situations, flying the aircraft is absolutely the priority.
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