Question 250-1 : In the event that an emergency landing must be initiated ? [ Explanation maintenance ]

Question 250-2 : The pilot in command has just rejected a take off in a transport category aircraft close to its maximum take off mass the rejection was made around 60 knots indicated airspeed due to a blocked runway prior to attempting another take off as regards the aircraft tyres and brakes what should the flight ?

Calculate and wait for the expiry of the brake cooling time before attempting a subsequent take off.

Looking at the answer options 'if the aircraft has carbon brakes no cooling time is required and a subsequent take off may be performed immediately' > incorrect both carbon and steel brakes will need a cooling time'if the tyres did not ignite or explode immediately after rejection a subsequent take off may be performed immediately' > incorrect even if the tyres do not explode they will still need a cooling time to ensure proper braking availability for the next attempt at departure'calculate and wait for the expiry of the brake cooling time before attempting a subsequent take off' > correct see below for more information'atc should be asked for the required brake cooling time before attempting a subsequent take off' > incorrect atc will not know how long you require this information comes from the manufacturer and can be found in the on board documents ie the afm you will inform atc of the time needed each brake is designed to absorb a definite amount of energy as brakes stop the aircraft by friction the kinetic energy of the aircraft proportional to its mass and the speed at which it is moving is converted into heat when a brake becomes overheated the metal or carbon compound loses its properties it starts getting soft and deforms the risks of overheated brakes include loss of braking efficiency leading to runway overrun burst tyres and even wheel fireif brakes are applied during a rejected take off or after landing they must be cooled down to ambient temperature before another movement most likely another take off is attemptedmost manufacturers provide afm data for quick turn arounds specifying the minimum cooling time between braking and a new take off this depends on the aircraft's mass the speed when braking was commenced the intensity of brakes applied and the ambient temperatures

Question 250-3 : You are planning to land on a contaminated runway according to the runway condition assessment matrix rcam the snowtam reports the equivalent of medium braking action for the entire runway however based on pilot reports the breaking action is good medium medium for the landing runway in order to ?

Avoid floating and apply more wheel braking earlier as their effect is better early in the landing roll.

The best way to explain this is to consider the 4 answers'use the wheel brakes first and then select reverse thrust when the brakes are becoming less effective' > incorrect reverse thrust works best at high speeds you would not wait until late in the landing roll to engage reversers'descend below the glide slope and touch down as close to the landing threshold as possible' > incorrect never descend below the glide slope in an attempt to mitigate for a contaminated runway doing so would risk landing short of the runway or with insufficient airspeed'use reverse thrust when the speed is high and change to wheel braking when the speed reduces' > incorrect using reverse thrust at high speed is perfect but this answer states 'change to wheel braking' reverse thrust should be used in conjunction with wheel braking in these conditions'avoid floating and apply more wheel braking earlier as their effect is better early in the landing roll' > correct according to the given information the braking action is reported as good medium medium the pilot needs to maximise the good braking available in the 1st third of the runway perform an early and firm touchdown early as runway behind you is no use firm to ensure that the wheels break through any surface contamination and make contact with the runway decelerate as much as you can as soon as you can aerodynamic drag and reverse thrust are most effective at high speed

Question 250-4 : An aircraft is scheduled to depart from an airfield which is closing soon the current metar is reporting freezing fog the airport's de ice and anti ice equipment is out of service due to a flat tyre the company has expressed that the flight must remain on schedule what shall the pilots do ?

Remain at the airport until the equipment is available.

Any type of ice accretion is an obstacle to smooth airflow and will slow the aircraft down causing flow separation introducing turbulence thereby degrading lifting performance of the wing furthermore freezing deposits may cause moving parts such as elevators ailerons flap actuating mechanism etc to jam and create a potentially hazardous conditionthe conditions given rise to ice accretion on the ground include freezing fog freezing fog is fog formed of supercooled water droplets which freeze upon contact with exposed objects and form a coating of rimeclear icein freezing fog reported as fzfg in a metar or atis or when the horizontal visibility is less than 1 000 m with an oat below 0ºc the aircraft must be anti iced or de iced if such conditions exist prior to departure

Question 250-5 : You are on the final approach to land at a coastal airfield with a high mountain situated nearby and little traffic you initiated a go around after observing excessive autothrottle inputs unusual pitch changes and a sudden decrease in indicated airspeed based on the information given which is the ?

Low level windshear.

Windshear recognition timely recognition of a windshear condition is vital for the successful implementation of the windshear recoveryescape procedure the following deviations should be considered as indications of a possible windshear condition • indicated airspeed variations in excess of 15 kt • ground speed variations • analog wind indication variations direction and velocity • vertical speed excursions of 500 ftmn • pitch attitude excursions of 5 degrees • glide slope deviation of 1 dot • heading variations of 10 degrees • unusual autothrust activity or throttle levers position in this case the changes in autothrottle inputs unusual pitch angles and sudden increase in ias may indicate an increase in headwind which sudden decrease in ias and increase in tailwind will follow due to windshear

Question 250-6 : The initial effect of a downdraft can be similar to ?

Decreasing headwind or increasing tailwind.

there are many questions now regarding wind shear and micro bursts all these questions demonstrate that an assumption is made by easa that unless stated otherwise the aircraft is following the sequence of events as shown in the figure in this question as the aircraft is entering the down draft it is in position 2 as described below easa is referring to a micro burst when they say 'downdraft' a micro burst is a localized column of sinking air downdraft within a thunderstormfor these questions involving wind shear and micro bursts the scenario can be considered in 3 parts position 1 on the figure an increasing head wind which increases the energy of the aircraft the airspeed increases and the aircraft floats up above the flight profileposition 2 on the figure the aircraft now flies under the wind shear micro burst the previous headwind decreases and the airspeed decreases the aircraft now sinks due to the loss of energy and also the down draft the angle of attack will decrease as the relative airflow is now coming from a higher orientationposition 3 on the figure the aircraft leaves the down draft but now encounters an increasing tail wind this steals more energy and the airspeed decreases and the aircraft sinks furthernote it is perhaps better to consider these questions in terms of the aircraft's energy headwind increasing tailwind decreasing = gain of energy tailwind increasing headwind decreasing = loss of energyvideo explanation

Question 250-7 : What is correct for an aircraft flying over a small bird sanctuary ?

Bird strikes can cause damage to any aircraft part.

Although it may seem that a bird is substantially smaller and hence harmless to a flying aircraft several aircraft systems can be affected potentially leading to disaster a bird strike is defined as being a collision between a bird and an aircraft and is often expanded to include bats and other animalswhen a bird even a small one hits a plane many systems can be affected clogged probes and damaged sensors may lead to inconsistent speed altitude and attitude information or disagreement among instruments engine damage may range from dented compressor blades to vibration and engine failure windscreens may be shattered impeding clear vision of the pilot or in the worst case causing decompression other parts of the airframe also commonly suffer from damage after a bird strike although it normally does not result in any critical failure in flight jet engines are particularly vulnerable to bird strikes leading to a loss of thrust following the ingestion of the bird

Question 250-8 : During a quick turnaround in cologne the atis reports an air temperature of 10°c and freezing rain the aircraft has landed with clear ice under the wings there is only a short time before the next departure what shall the commander do ?

Order a complete de ice following the clean aircraft concept.

No airplane shall take off unless clear of all deposits including ice snow or slush it is the responsibility of the commander to check whether there is any icing on the wings control surfaces and the fuselage during the pre flight aircraft inspectionif in doubt there's no doubt de ice icao doc 9640 clean aircraft conceptan aircraft shall not take off if ice snow slush or frost is present on the wings propellers control surfaces engine inlets or other critical surfacesnote more information and regulations can be found in icao doc 9640 manual of aircraft ground de icinganti icing operations

Question 250-9 : While loading an aircraft cargo hold a carton box with dangerous goods gets damaged what is the correct procedure ?

The box is offloaded under the operator's responsibility.

Looking at the answer options 'the box is offloaded under the passengers responsibility' > incorrect not the case yet 'the box is offloaded under the operator's responsibility' > correct as can be seen below from annex 18 it is the operator who is responsible 'the box is offloaded under the captain's responsibility' > incorrect any damaged or leaking dg should be reported to the commander as captain you will contact your company to organise the offloading as specialised equipment staff or procedures may be required 'the box is offloaded under the sender's responsibility' > incorrect not once the dg are on board the aircraft icao annex 18 chapter 8 operator's responsibilities 84 inspection for damage or leakage841 packages and overpacks containing dangerous goods and freight containers containing radioactive materials shall be inspected for evidence of leakage or damage before loading on an aircraft or into a unit load device leaking or damaged packages overpacks or freight containers shall not be loaded on an aircraft842 a unit load device shall not be loaded aboard an aircraft unless the device has been inspected and found free from any evidence of leakage from or damage to any dangerous goods contained therein843 where any package of dangerous goods loaded on an aircraft appears to be damaged or leaking the operator shall remove such package from the aircraft or arrange for its removal by an appropriate authority or organization and thereafter shall ensure that the remainder of the consignment is in proper condition for transport by air and that no other package has been contaminated844 packages or overpacks containing dangerous goods and freight containers containing radioactive materials shall be inspected for signs of damage or leakage upon unloading from the aircraft or unit load device if evidence of damage or leakage is found the area where the area where the dangerous goods or unit load device were stowed on the aircraft shall be inspected for damage or contamination

Question 250-10 : On approach to land the flight crew is informed of a microburst near the runway what should they do ?

Hold until the bad weather has dissipated or diverted to alternate.

A microburst is a concentrated downdraft associated with the mature stage of a thunderstorm which upon reaching the ground spreads out in a circular pattern its danger lies in the change of direction of the wind when an aircraft attempts to fly through if at a low level near the ground it initially experiences increasing headwind when under the cell downdraft is present as the aircraft leaves the area it experiences a change of wind direction into tailwindwhen a microburst is expected or observed the best precaution is to avoid it or prevent its effects by holding or delaying take offapproach until the front or thunderstorm passes

Question 250-11 : An aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference the flight crew advises atc of this fact and starts descending should the flight crew advise atc about this flight path change ?

Yes but should advise before starting descending if possible.

Sera11005 unlawful interference an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference shal endeavour to set the transponder to code 7500 and notify the appropriate ats unit of any significant circumstance associated therewith and any deviation from the current flight plan necessitated by the cirumstances it order to enable the ats unit to give priority to the aircraft and to minimise conflict with other aircraftnote this question was created based on incomplete feedback we would kindly appreciate that you inform us if you come across it in your official exam

Question 250-12 : An aircraft followed a full de icing and anti icing procedure the hold over time has not yet elapsed however as the weather deteriorates the commander is worried that the hot may have changed what shall heshe do ?

The commander may ask for a visual check for any contaminant.

Holdover time hot is the estimated time the anti icing fluid will prevent the formation of ice and frost and the accumulation of snow on the protected treated surfaces of an aeroplane the responsibility regarding hot and subsequent re application of de iceanti ice if applicable rests with the commander from the time he has received the final report about the treatment from the antide icing person in chargehold over times are only guidelines because a variety of factors can change the effectiveness of the fluid these factors include high winds jet blasts wet snow heavy precipitation aircraft skin temperature lower than outside air temperature direct sunlight etc monitoring of the environmental conditions is therefore essentialwhen in doubt whether the hot has changed or not the commander shall ask for visualtactile inspection to guarantee the airframe is still free of any contaminant

Question 250-13 : Which of the following will shorten the applicable holdover time hot for de icinganti icing procedures 1 high wind velocity 2 light wind velocity 3 ambient temperatures above 0 degrees celsius 4 high relative humidity 5 aeroplane skin temperature below the ambient temperature 6 a low ?

1 4 5 and 6.

Question 250-14 : The aircraft has been subject of unlawful interference the pilots have made a successful communication with atc then they change their flight level ?

They shall notify atc about the level change so that atc can minimise conflict with other aircraft.

Looking at the answer options 'they do not need to establish contact with atc and may descend to any level regulations do not apply to them' > incorrect the pilot shall endeavour to notify atc if possible of any deviation from the current flight 'they do not need to notify atc about the level change as positive contact has been previously established' > incorrect the pilot shall endeavour to notify atc if possible of any deviation from the current flight 'they do not need to notify atc about the level change as they're subject of an act of unlawful interference' > incorrect the pilot shall endeavour to notify atc if possible of any deviation from the current flight 'they shall notify atc about the level change so that atc can minimise conflict with other aircraft' > correct see below from icao annex 2an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference shall endeavour to notify the appropriate ats unit of this fact any significant circumstances associated therewith and any deviation from the current flight plan necessitated by the circumstances in order to enable the ats unit to give priority to the aircraft and to minimize conflict with other aircraftif the pilot in command cannot proceed to an aerodrome in accordance with the rules in chapter 3 372 heshe should attempt to continue flying on the assigned track and at the assigned cruising level at least until able to notify an ats unit or until within radar or ads b coveragesource icao annex 2note this question has been created based on incomplete feedback we would kindly ask anyone who comes across it to let us know

Question 250-15 : An aircraft experiences a rapid decompression at high altitude the flight crew descends to 15 000 ft atc instructs them that they will receive further descent clearance to 10 000 ft in 15 minutes does the flight crew need oxygen ?

Yes all the time because the cabin altitude is above 13 000 ft.

Crew members must use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude ie the actual pressure in the aircraft exceeds 10 000 ft for a period longer than 30 minutes or 13 000 ft anytime without delay there is no requirement for it to be used for passengers however it must still be available the amount of supplemental oxygen to be carried depends on whether the aircraft is pressurized in which case its use is in emergency only or unpressurized where the amount has to correspond to the length of flight planned above these altitudesfor pressurized aircraft the following amount is required for flight crew the entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13 000 ft the remainder of the flying time when the cabin pressure altitude is between 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft after the initial 30 minutes at these altitudes but in no case less than • 30 minutes' supply for aeroplanes certified to fly at altitudes not exceeding 25 000 ft • 2 hours' supply for aeroplanes certified to fly at altitudes of more than 25 000 ft for unpressurized aircraft the following amount is required for flight crew the entire flying time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft

Question 250-16 : What information could you get from snowtam 1 snow 2 windshear 3 water on the runway 4 oil spillage 5 thunderstorm ?

1 and 3.

Snowtam is a special series notam given in a standard format providing a surface condition report notifying the presence or cessation of hazardous conditions due to snow ice slush standing water or water associated with snow on the movement areathe maximum validity of snowtam is 8 hours and a new snowtam is to be issued whenever a new runway condition report is received the new snowtam cancels the previous onethe snowtam reports runway condition code for each third of the runway percentage coverage of the surface depth in millimetres and a verbal description for instance 333 1008080 snowsnowsnow

Question 250-17 : If you are flying an aircraft and during your departure you see birds what should your course of action be ?

Inform atc as soon as the workload permits.

Regulation eu 20191384 cat mpa105 responsibilities of the commander d bird hazards and strikes 1 whenever a potential bird hazard is observed the commander shall inform the air traffic service ats unit as soon as flight crew workload allows 2 whenever an aircraft for which the commander is responsible suffers a bird strike that results in significant damage to the aircraft or the loss or malfunction of any essential service the commander shall submit a written bird strike report after landing to the competent authority

Question 250-18 : Which of the following documents contains the regulations concerning civil aviation security ?

Icao annex 17.

Icao annex 17 chapter 2 general principles211 each contracting state shall have as its primary objective the safety of passengers crew ground personnel and the general public in all matters related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation212 each contracting state shall establish an organization and develop and implement regulations practices and procedures to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference taking into account the safety regularity and efficiency of flights213 each contracting state shall ensure that such an organization and such regulations practices and procedures a protect the safety of passengers crew ground personnel and the general public in all matters related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation and b are capable of responding rapidly to meet any increased security threat

Question 250-19 : During boarding the flight crew is approached by the dispatcher and asked if there is a possibility to accommodate a person on the previously unoccupied flight deck jumpseat there are no spare passenger seats in the cabin and the person who wishes to travel works for the operator but not in a flying ?

The person may travel on the jumpseat provided it is in accordance with the company's operations manual however the commander alone makes the final decision.

Amc3 oromlr100 dictates that an operator shall establish the conditions and procedures for the use of vacant crew seatsthe procedures are mainly based according to the national aviation security program and the operator security program in accordance with pilot in command pic approvalbelow you can find an example of the requirements established by a european operator use of vacant crew seats supernumery seatjump seat the supernumerary seatjump seat may only be occupied at the discretion and with the express approval of the commander this approval may not unreasonably be withheld for legitimate checking personnel training and familiarisation observers monitoring aircraft systems or performance or positioning crewthe captain shall satisfy himherself that a jumpseat passenger is not of any known or apparent mental instability is not under the influence of alcohol or drugs or any prohibited or prescribed substances is able bodiednot prevent through any infirmity from reacting correctly to instructions and reacting correctly in an emergency situationfare payingrevenue passengers a revenue passenger shall not occupy any jumpseat under any circumstances

Question 250-20 : Which of the following hazards can be given in a snowtam 1 snow 2 water 3 oil spills 4 lightning 5 embedded thunderstorms 6 wind shear 7 slush ?

1 2 and 7.

Snowtam is a special series notam given in a standard format providing a surface condition report notifying the presence or cessation of hazardous conditions due to snow ice slush standing water or water associated with snow on the movement areathe maximum validity of snowtam is 8 hours and a new snowtam is to be issued whenever a new runway condition report is received the new snowtam cancels the previous onethe snowtam reports runway condition code for each third of the runway percentage coverage of the surface depth in millimetres and a verbal description for instance 333 1008080 snowsnowsnownote a few different questions similar to this have been seen in the exams but the answers have been the same for the questions recently reported

Question 250-21 : In aviation what differentiates icing on the ground from icing in the air ?

Due to kinetic heating airflow and other factors ice accumulation is different between icing on the ground and in the air.

Learning objective 07102020205 explain that ice frost and snow formed on the critical surfaces on the ground can have a totally different effect on aircraft flight characteristics than ice frost and snow formed in flightairframe icing can be a large problem for flight and it forms in many different ways in flight airframe icing occurs due to supercooled water droplets hitting a cold airframe or due to hoar frost etc but this means that it forms very differently to icing on the ground which often forms due to rain falling on the cold airframe slush snow build up etcthese often look totally different with in flight icing building up on the leading edges of the wings engines and aircraft nose and with ground icing looking like snow on the wings icicles hanging off the surfaces slush in the wheel wells etcthat is why we can't really say that one or the other is 'worst' as both types of icing are so different

Question 250-22 : When an airline operator outsources ground de icinganti icing activities to a third party who holds the ultimate responsibility for the services rendered by the contracted company ?

The airline operator.

Easa air ops gm2 catopmpa250 ice and other contaminants — ground procedures g contracting when the operator contracts training on de icinganti icing the operator should ensure that the contractor complies with the operator’s trainingqualification procedures together with any specific procedures in respect of 1 de icing andor anti icing methods and procedures 2 fluids to be used including precautions for storage and preparation for use 3 specific aircraft provisions eg no spray areas propellerengine de icing apu operation etc and 4 checking and communications procedures

Question 250-23 : Which of the icao's annex is related to unlawful interference ?

Annex 17.

Icao annexes annex 1 personnel licensing annex 2 rules of the air annex 3 meteorological service for international air navigation annex 4 aeronautical charts annex 5 units of measurement to be used in air and ground operations annex 6 operation of aircraft annex 7 aircraft nationality and registration marks annex 8 airworthiness of aircraft annex 9 facilitation annex 10 aeronautical telecommunications annex 11 air traffic services annex 12 search and rescue annex 13 aircraft accident and incident investigation annex 14 aerodromes annex 15 aeronautical information services annex 16 environmental protection annex 17 security safeguarding international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference annex 18 the safe transport of dangerous goods by air annex 19 safety managemenet

Question 250-24 : Regarding wake turbulence what is the minimum non radar separation time for a medium aircraft behind a heavy aeroplane on approach to the same runway ?

2 minutes.

icao doc 4444 58 time based wake turbulence longitudinal separation minima 582 arriving aircraft5821 except as provided for in 5811 a and b the following separation minima shall be applied 58211 the following minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft a medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft — 2 minutes b light aircraft behind a heavy or medium aircraft — 3 minutes873 separation minima based on ats surveillance systems8734 the following distance based wake turbulence separation minima shall be applied to aircraft being provided with an ats surveillance service in the approach and departure phases of flight in the circumstances given in 87341

Question 250-25 : Where are birds commonly found 1 garbage dumps2 power plants3 ponds or lakes4 motorways ?

1 and 3.

The presence of birds can be anticipated and information about bird or other animal species abundance is available to airliners and crews as part of the pre flight briefing package bird migration or large presence of birds in the vicinity of an aerodrome is an aspect that is either published in the airport text pages in the aip if permanent or in notams if occasional or higher concentration than normalbirds are typically found in a variety of environments that provide food water and shelter from the available options these are the most common locations 1 garbage dumps many bird species such as gulls crows and pigeons are often found at garbage dumps because these areas provide a plentiful and easily accessible food source the discarded food and waste attract birds looking for a quick meal3 ponds or lakes these bodies of water are natural habitats for many bird species including ducks geese herons and swans ponds and lakes offer abundant food sources such as fish insects and aquatic plants as well as nesting sites and safe places for resting and breeding

Question 250-26 : Regulation ec no 3002008 describes the safeguard against unlawful interference which icao annex does the regulation refer to ?

17.

Icao annex 17 safeguarding international civil aviation against acts of unlwaful interferenceregulation ec no 3002008 on common rules in the field of civil aviation securityannex 17 and regulation ec no 3002008 both dictate the rules and regulations to be used to maintain the security of international airports and international air transport the primary objective of both these documents is to preserve safety against potential security threats also known as 'unlawful interference'icao annexes annex 1 personnel licensing annex 2 rules of the air annex 3 meteorological service for international air navigation annex 4 aeronautical charts annex 5 units of measurement to be used in air and ground operations annex 6 operation of aircraft annex 7 aircraft nationality and registration marks annex 8 airworthiness of aircraft annex 9 facilitation annex 10 aeronautical telecommunications annex 11 air traffic services annex 12 search and rescue annex 13 aircraft accident and incident investigation annex 14 aerodromes annex 15 aeronautical information services annex 16 environmental protection annex 17 security annex 18 the safe transport of dangerous goods by air

Question 250-27 : Why is fuel jettisoning typically conducted for 15 minutes ?

To reduce the aircraft's mass from mctom to a mass that after 15 minutes is sufficient to achieve relevant climb gradients.

At first look a case could be made for all 4 answers the options given are based on feedback so please let us know if you see different options in your examthis question is covering the learning objective 'explain why a fuel jettisoning system must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within 15 minutes' the source for this information is cs 25 as followscs 25fuel jettisoning systemif a fuel jettison system is required it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within 15 minutes to reduce the aircraft's mass from mctom to a mass that allows it to meet the approach climb gradient performance criteriain the landing configuration – that is landing gear extended flapsslats set for landing – all airplane types irrespective of the number of engines must be capable of maintaining a climb gradient of 32% with the thrust that is available 8 seconds after moving the thrust levers to the go around thrust setting

Question 250-28 : Consider the following statements regarding bird strike reporting 1 if a pilot observes birds that could lead to a bird strike he should report it to the ats unit immediately 2 if during flight you were close to a bird strike after landing you must file a written reportwhich of the following is ?

Both statements are incorrect.

This question is a development from question 704832looking at the 2 statements 1 if a pilot observes birds that could lead to a bird strike he should report it to the ats unit immediately > false reporting the presence of birds should be done as soon as the work load permits not necessarily immediately2 if during flight you were close to a bird strike after landing you must file a written report > false a written report is required after an actual bird strike

Question 250-29 : Are cat operators required to establish security training for their crews and if so why ?

Yes to prevent acts of unlawful interference during flight.

Regulation ec no 3002008 of the european parliament and of the council 10 in flight security measures1 without prejudice to the applicable aviation safety rules a unauthorised persons shall be prevented from entering the flight crew compartment during a flight b potentially disruptive passengers shall be subjected to appropriate security measures during a flight2 appropriate security measures such as training of flight crew and cabin staff shall be taken to prevent acts of unlawful interference during a flight3 weapons with the exception of those carried in the hold shall not be carried on board an aircraft unless the required security conditions in accordance with national laws have been fulfilled and authorisation has been given by the states involved4 paragraph 3 shall also apply to in flight security officers if they carry weaponsicao annex 17 134 training programmes1341 an operator shall establish and maintain an approved security training programme which ensures crew members act in the most appropriate manner to minimize the consequences of acts of unlawful interference

Question 250-30 : While preparing a commercial air transport flight for cargo only the commander discovers that there is a consignment of approved dangerous goods on board the commander must ensure that… ?

Written or printed information regarding the dangerous goods such as a notoc is carried on board.

Looking at the answer options 1 'an entry is entered in the aircraft technical log to ensure that there is a record of the consignment' > incorrect the tech log is used for information such as routes flownaircraft hoursfuels loadsaircraft defects etc but is not used for dg details2 'written or printed information regarding the dangerous goods such as a notoc is carried on board' > correct notoc stands for 'notification to captain' and is a document that informs the pilot in command of dangerous goods or special loads being carried on an aircraft the notoc ensures that the flight crew and all other parties involved are aware of the nature and quantity of hazardous materials on board this information helps the crew plan for emergencies3 'a separate loadsheet is prepared since the dangerous goods are regarded as different to normal cargo' > incorrect the dg will be included in the regular loadsheet4 'the local aviation authority has been advised of the dangerous goods in writing prior to departure' > incorrect the authority will have given the operator an approval for dg but does not need advising of every consignment carried

Question 250-31 : Which of the following can be considered a contaminant on a runway ?

Question 250-32 : During a manual approach the aeroplane is subjected to wind shear with a decreasing headwind in the absence of a pilot action the aeroplane 1 flies above the intended approach path 2 flies below the intended approach path 3 has an increasing true airspeed 4 has a decreasing true airspeedthe ?

2 4.

windshear refers to the situation where the wind changes direction or speed suddenly over a short distance it can be vertical or horizontal affecting an aircraft either as it takes off or descends or its horizontal flight path a decreasing headwind headwind starts to switch to a tailwind results in a sudden reduction of airspeed consequently lift decreases and the aircraft will sink below the correct glide slope unless the pilot takes action on the other hand an increasing headwind decreasing tailwind results in an increased airspeed consequently lift increases and the aircraft 'ballons' above the correct glide slope

Question 250-33 : According to icao noise abatement procedures during landing… ?

Shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.

Icao doc 8168section 7 noise abatement procedures35 aeroplane operating procedures — landingnoise abatement procedures shall not contain a prohibition of use of reverse thrust during landing

Question 250-34 : Following a landing with overweight and overspeed conditions the tyres and brakes are extremely hot for safety reasons the landing gear wheels should be approached… ?

From front or rear side.

Brake system overheat conditiona braking system works by converting the kinetic energy of a moving aircraft into heat to prevent damage to the tyres and undercarriage structure the heat energy must be dissipated rapidly into the surrounding air if this does not happen and the amount of heat generated becomes excessive as can be the case after an aborted take off or following a landing at an excessive mass andor speed the tyres can overheat and burst consequently brake andor wheel fires are likely to occur to prevent tyres bursting due to overheating wheels are fitted with fusible plugs which melt at a preset temperature this allows the tyre to deflate at a steady controlled rate the usual strategies for cooling hot brakes include giving consideration to an appropriate parking area ie use a remote location away from other aircraft buildings parking into the wind chocking the nose wheel and releasing the parking brake the brake temperatures may be so high that the brakes may weld together and consequently do not release even after the brakes cool down and using brake fans when available should a fire develop more direct intervention is required responders must exercise caution when approaching burning or overheated wheel assemblies as so long as the wheels remain inflated there is a risk of explosive failure of the wheel assembly laterally any approach to the wheel should therefore be conducted from the front or backwhen extinguishing a wheel fire sand or dry powder should be used to cover the fire and cut the oxygen supply some extinguishers will cool the landing gear too quickly and the wheel may explode

Question 250-35 : During a manual approach the aeroplane is subjected to wind shear with an increasing tailwind in the absence of a pilot action the aeroplane 1 flies above the intended approach path 2 flies below the intended approach path 3 has an increasing true airspeed 4 has a decreasing true airspeedthe ?

2 4.

windshear refers to the situation where the wind changes direction or speed suddenly over a short distance it can be vertical or horizontal affecting an aircraft either as it takes off or descends or its horizontal flight path a decreasing headwind headwind starts to switch to a tailwind results in a sudden reduction of airspeed consequently lift decreases and the aircraft will sink below the correct glide slope unless the pilot takes action on the other hand an increasing headwind decreasing tailwind results in an increased airspeed consequently lift increases and the aircraft 'ballons' above the correct glide slope

Question 250-36 : During a manual approach the aeroplane is subjected to wind shear with an increasing headwind in the absence of a pilot action the aeroplane 1 flies above the intended approach path 2 flies below the intended approach path 3 has an increasing true airspeed 4 has a decreasing true airspeedthe ?

1 3.

windshear refers to the situation where the wind changes direction or speed suddenly over a short distance it can be vertical or horizontal affecting an aircraft either as it takes off or descends or its horizontal flight path a decreasing headwind headwind starts to switch to a tailwind results in a sudden reduction of airspeed consequently lift decreases and the aircraft will sink below the correct glide slope unless the pilot takes action on the other hand an increasing headwind decreasing tailwind results in an increased airspeed consequently lift increases and the aircraft 'ballons' above the correct glide slope

Question 250-37 : The minimum equipment list mel shall be established by… ?

The operator and approved by the authority.

Icao annex 6master minimum equipment list mmel a list established for a particular aircraft type by the organization responsible for the type design with the approval of the state of design containing items one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the commencement of a flight the mmel may be associated with special operating conditions limitations or procedures minimum equipment list mel a list which provides for the operation of aircraft subject to specified conditions with particular equipment inoperative prepared by an operator in conformity with or more restrictive than the mmel established for the aircraft type the manufacturer draws up a master minimum equipment list mmel the mel minimum equipment list is drawn up by the operator and cannot be less restrictive than the mmel

Question 250-38 : According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the icao pans ops 8168 the procedure which results in the biggest noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport… ?

Is nadp 1.

Icao doc 8168appendix to chapter 3noise abatement departure climb guidance1 general11 aeroplane operating procedures for the take off climb shall ensure that the necessary safety of flight operations is maintained while minimizing exposure to noise on the ground the following two examples of operating procedures for the climb have been developed as guidance and are considered safe when the criteria in 32 are satisfied the first procedure nadp 1 is intended to provide noise reduction for noise sensitive areas in close proximity to the departure end of the runway see figure i 7 3 app 1 the second procedure nadp 2 provides noise reduction to areas more distant from the runway end see figure i 7 3 app 2 further information on noise abatement procedures can be found in the attached figures

Question 250-39 : The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is… ?

12 seconds.

Time of useful consciousnessthe time of useful consciousness refers to the time available to individuals to perform their tasks after they have been deprived of oxygen but are still aware of their environment and capable of controlling their actionsit is important for the cabin crew to realize that the time of useful consciousness is different for each individual and depends on the altitudeindividual’s state of healthamount of activityrelationship between altitude and tuc altitudetuc40 000 ft15 – 20 s35 000 ft30 – 90 s30 000 ft1 – 2 min25 000 ft2 – 3 min20 000 ft30 min

Question 250-40 : During the passenger briefing for a flight requiring life jackets the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life jackets… ?

When outside the aircraft.

Don’t inflate your life jacket until you’ve left the planethe first reason is that every second counts in an emergency and the first 90 seconds are the most important so you don’t want hundreds of people trying to inflate their life jackets before they get out the door inflated life jackets will also take up more room making it harder for people to move in an emergency the second reason is that if the plane starts to fill with water and you’re wearing an inflated lifejacket you won’t be able to swim to safety the hijacked ethiopian airlines flight 961 is an example of why you shouldn't inflate your life jacket inside the plane after the plane crash landed in water many passengers who had survived the impact died when their inflated life jackets kept them trapped in the rising water