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Question 230-1 : Ops regulation..according to air ops, a life jacket is mandatory for each person on board a land aeroplane, when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than ? [ Formation assignment ]
50 nm.
. easa air ops.cat.ide.a.285 flight over water. a the following aeroplanes shall be equipped with a life jacket for each person on board or equivalent flotation device for each person on board younger than 24 months, stowed in a position that is readily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided.. 1 landplanes operated over water at a distance of more than 50 nm from the shore or taking off or landing at an aerodrome where the take off or approach path is so disposed over water that there would be a likelihood of a ditching and.. 2 seaplanes operated over water.
Question 230-2 : Ops regulation..on overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to ?
400 nm or 120 minutes at cruising speed.
. easa air ops.cat.ide.a.285 flight over water.on overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to....1. 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles , whichever is the lesser, for aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit s becoming inoperative at any point along the route or..planned diversions or..2. 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser, for all other aeroplanes.
Question 230-3 : Amc4 spa.lvo.100 ecqb2022 v4...a category ii precision approach cat ii is an approach with ?
A decision height of at least 100 ft
.at landing, two types of procedures exist. non precision approach rnav/lnav, ndb, ndb/dme, vor, vor/dme, llz, llz/dme, vdf, sra.and. precision approach ils, gls, mls, par.. ..for a non precision approach we use the word mdh a minimum descent height altitude...for a precision approach we use the word dh a decision height altitude...at mdh a you are able to level your aircraft at the minimum descent height, until reaching a specific point wich can be based on time or distance from a facility , offering you opportunity to established visual contact with the runway to perform a landing...at dh a you must initiate a go around procedure... ..minimum descent height mdh.for an ils approach without the glidepath localizer only 250 ft...for a for a vor/dme approach 250 ft...for a vor approach 300 ft...for a ndb approach 350 ft...for a rnav/lnav approach 300 ft...decision height dh.for ils cat ii 100 ft...for ils cat i 200 ft...for a gls gnss landing system similar to traditional category i approaches.
Question 230-4 : A category i precision approach cat i is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least ?
550 m.
.category i cat i approach operation means a precision instrument approach and landing using an instrument landing system ils , microwave landing system mls , gls ground based augmented global navigation satellite system gnss/gbas landing system , precision approach radar par or gnss using a satellite based augmentation system sbas with a decision height dh not lower than 200 ft and with a runway visual range rvr not less than 550 m.
Question 230-5 : With the control display unit cdu of an inertial navigation system ins , you can read the following information desired track dtk = 100° track tk = 120°..you can conclude that the ?
Track error angle tke is right r.
Dalton.we are diverging too also isn't it...as you can see, the answer aircraft is diverging from its ideal course is not the right answer....maybe the aircraft is diverging, maybe the aircraft is converging, maybe we are flying parallel to the desired track... from the given informations we are unable to conclude on this... marcusorjehag.info from cdu would be 'tke right' and not divergent after all they are asking for the cdu presentation of the info...
Question 230-6 : The abbreviation mnps means ?
Minimum navigation performance specification
Question 230-7 : For aeroplanes certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder cvr , when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last ?
30 minutes of operation.
.easa air ops.cat.ide.a.185.. a an operator shall not operate any aeroplane with a maximum certificated take off mass over 5 700 kg first issued with an individual certificate of airworthiness, before 1 april 1998 unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which records.. 1 voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio.. 2 the aural environment of the flight deck.. 3 voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone system.. 4 voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker and.. 5 voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the public address system, if installed... b the cockpit voice recorder shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of its operation... c the cockpit voice recorder must start to record prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power and continue to record until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power... d the cockpit voice recorder must have a.device to assist in locating that recorder in water.
Question 230-8 : On board a non pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than ?
10 000 ft and 13 000 ft.
.supplemental oxygen for non pressurised aeroplanes. 2624
Question 230-9 : On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure ?
13 000 ft.
Oxygen minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for pressurised aeroplanes. 2625
Question 230-10 : For the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurised aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above ?
25 000 ft.
Supplemental oxygen pressurised aeroplanes.a......b..... iv oxygen masks for use by flight crew members in pressurised aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above 25 000 ft, shall be a quick donning type of mask.
Question 230-11 : All aeroplanes must be fitted with a flight data recorder fdr when their maximum certificated take off mass is greater than ?
5700 kg.
.cat.ide.a.190 flight data recorder.the following aeroplanes shall be equipped with a flight data recorder fdr that uses a digital method of recording and storing data and for which a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium is available.1 aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5 700 kg and first issued with an individual cofa on or after 1 june 1990 .2 turbine engined aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5 700 kg and first issued with an individual cofa before 1 june 1990 and .3 multi engined turbine powered aeroplanes with an mctom of 5 700 kg or less, with an mopsc of more than nine and first issued with an individual cofa on or after 1 april 1998.
Question 230-12 : The minimum lateral separation in the nat region is ?
60 nm between aircraft meeting minimum navigation performance specifications.
Please download the guidance concerning air navigation in and above the north atlantic mnps airspace edition 2010.pdf675..16.3 route planning..lateral separation minima & resulting route definition conventions.16.3.1 in the north atlantic mnps airspace the lateral separation standard is 60 nm. since 60 nm is equivalent to one degree of latitude along any meridian and given that the vast majority of flights through this airspace are generally eastbound or westbound, this standard is deemed to be met by tracks separated by one degree of latitude at common meridians.
Question 230-13 : Which separation will be provided if reduced vertical separation minimum rvsm is used when operating in mnps airspace ?
60 nm lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
Doc 9574 manual on implementation of a 300 m 1000 ft vertical separation minimum between fl 290 and fl 410 inclusive.rvsm refers to a vertical.separation minimum of 300 m 1000 ft between fl 290 and fl 410 inclusive...mnpsa manual.in the mnps airspace the lateral separation standard is 60 nm.
Question 230-14 : Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is ?
8000 ft.
Question 230-15 : The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation / position lights, located to the rear of the aircraft, is ?
140°.
. 1463.same for helicopters.
Question 230-16 : During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the ?
Green light.
. 1463.this aircraft, coming in front of us from the right, will not cut our path. he will stay on our right in the opposite direction.. 1464
Question 230-17 : During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the ?
Red steady light.
. 1463.take care this aircraft, coming in front of us from the left, will not cut our path. he will stay on our left in the opposite direction.. 1662
Question 230-18 : The coverage angle of the red navigation/position light is ?
110°.
. 1463
Question 230-19 : Astronomic precession ?
Causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the northern hemisphere.
.astronomic precession is 'earth rate' the gyro drift due to earth rotation 15° / h x sin lm ,.it is the angular velocity or rate of the earth's rotation..it causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the northern hemisphere..it causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere.
Question 230-20 : The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category d aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of ?
3600 m
.lowest minima for circling.category a 1500 m..category b 1600 m..category c 2400 m..category d 3600 m.
Question 230-21 : The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category c aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of ?
2400 m.
.lowest minima for circling.category a 1500 m..category b 1600 m..category c 2400 m..category d 3600 m.
Question 230-22 : The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category b aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of ?
1600 m.
.lowest minima for circling.category a 1500 m..category b 1600 m..category c 2400 m..category d 3600 m.
Question 230-23 : The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category a aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of ?
1500 m.
.lowest minima for circling.category a 1500 m..category b 1600 m..category c 2400 m..category d 3600 m.
Question 230-24 : Ops regulation..during a conventional approach, the minimum descent height mdh is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than ?
2 m 7 ft below the aerodrome altitude.
.icao annex 6 part 1 operation of aircraft. minimum descent altitude mda or minimum descent height mdh a specified altitude or height in a non precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference...note 1 minimum descent altitude mda is referenced to mean sea level and minimum descent height mdh is referenced to the aerodrome elevation or to the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m 7 ft below the aerodrome elevation..a minimum descent height for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation...note 2 the required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path. in the case of a circling approach the required visual reference is the runway environment...note 3 for convenience when both expressions are used they may be written in the form 'minimum descent altitude/height' and abbreviated 'mda/h'.
Question 230-25 : Long range flights and etops..a polar track is a part of a track which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than ?
6 micro tesla.
Doc nat mnps.navigation in the area of compass unreliability..8.5.11 as aircraft move towards the earth's north magnetic pole the horizontal field strength reduces and the ability of the compass to accurately sense magnetic north is reduced. it is generally recognised that when the horizontal magnetic field strength falls below 6000 nanotesla, the magnetic compass can no longer be considered to be reliable. moreover, when the horizontal magnetic field strength falls below 3000 nanotesla, the magnetic compass is considered to be unuseable...this area of uncertainty around a magnetic pole is known as the 6 micro tesla zone. a track is considered as 'polar track' when a part of the track is within this area.
Question 230-26 : Long range flights and etops..arriving at the point of entry into mnps minimum navigation performance specification airspace except shanwick oceanic and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew ?
Keeps flying in accordance with the current flight plan
Question 230-27 : Penetration into the nat mnps airspace is ?
Subject to an oceanic clearance.
Question 230-28 : The north atlantic airspace is regulated, among other, according to ?
The icao document 7030 additional regional procedures
Question 230-29 : After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of ?
60 days.
.cat. mpa.195 handling of flight recorder recordings preservation, production, protection and use.following an accident, a serious incident or an occurrence identified by the investigating authority, the operator of an aircraft shall preserve the original recorded data for a period of 60 days or until otherwise directed by the investigating authority.
Question 230-30 : Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. the operator will see that this file is kept on ground. it contains more particularly..1 the weather conditions for the day.2 one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance ?
2, 3, 4, 5.
.cat. mpa.185 information to be retained on the ground.. a the operator shall ensure that at least for the duration of each flight or series of flights. 1 information relevant to the flight and appropriate for the type of operation is preserved on the ground. 2 the information is retained until it has been duplicated at the place at which it will be stored or, if this is impracticable,. 3 the same information is carried in a fireproof container in the aircraft... b the information referred to in a includes. 1 a copy of the operational flight plan, where appropriate. 2 copies of the relevant part s of the aircraft technical log. 3 route specific notam documentation if specifically edited by the operator. 4 mass and balance documentation if required and,. 5 special loads notification.
Question 230-31 : The lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category b aeroplane for circling are ?
Mdh=500 ft and visibility=1600 m
.lowest minima for circling.category a 1500 m..category b 1600 m..category c 2400 m..category d 3600 m.
Question 230-32 : For a category iii a approach, the rvr shall not be less than ?
200 m.
Amc5 spa.lvo.100
Question 230-33 : An operator must ensure that system minima for 'non precision approach procedures', which are based upon the use of ils without glidepath loc only , vor ndb, sra, and vdf are no lower than mdh following value with ?
Ndb facility, lowest mdh=350 ft
.at landing, two types of procedures exist. non precision approach rnav/lnav, ndb, ndb/dme, vor, vor/dme, llz, llz/dme, vdf, sra.and. precision approach ils, gls, mls, par.. ..for a non precision approach we use the word mdh a minimum descent height altitude...for a precision approach we use the word dh a decision height altitude...at mdh a you are able to level your aircraft at the minimum descent height, until reaching a specific point wich can be based on time or distance from a facility , offering you opportunity to established visual contact with the runway to perform a landing...at dh a you must initiate a go around procedure... ..minimum descent height mdh.for an ils approach without the glidepath localizer only 250 ft...for a for a vor/dme approach 250 ft...for a vor approach 300 ft...for a ndb approach 350 ft...for a rnav/lnav approach 300 ft...decision height dh.for ils cat ii 100 ft...for ils cat i 200 ft...for a gls gnss landing system similar to traditional category i approaches.
Question 230-34 : An operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at least ?
3 months.
.oro.mlr.115 record keeping..... b the following information used for the preparation and execution of a flight, and associated reports, shall be stored for 3 months. 1 the operational flight plan, if applicable. 2 route specific notice s to airmen notam and aeronautical information services ais briefing documentation, if edited by the operator. 3 mass and balance documentation. 4 notification of special loads, including written information to the commander/pilot in command about dangerous goods. 5 the journey log, or equivalent and. 6 flight report s for recording details of any occurrence, or any event that the commander/pilot in command deems necessary to report or record.
Question 230-35 : An operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless ?
He has carried out at least 3 take offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
. part fcl.060 recent experience. b aeroplanes, helicopters, powered lift, airships and sailplanes. a pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers. 1 as pic or co pilot unless he/she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take offs, approaches and landings in an aircraft of the same type or class or an ffs representing that type or class. the 3 take offs and landings shall be performed in either multi pilot or single pilot operations, depending on the privileges held by the pilot.
Question 230-36 : The minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single pilot operation under ifr shall be ?
5 ifr flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single pilot role.
.part oro.fc.202 single pilot operations under ifr..... c for aeroplane operations under ifr the pilot shall have. 1 a minimum of 50 hours flight time under ifr on the relevant type or class of aeroplane, of which 10 hours are as commander and. 2 completed during the preceding 90 days on the relevant type or class of aeroplane. i five ifr flights, including three instrument approaches, in a single pilot role or. ii an ifr instrument approach check.
Question 230-37 : For a category iii b approach, the rvr shall not be less than ?
75 m
Amc5 spa.lvo.100
Question 230-38 : A passenger is allowed to carry match boxes..1. on himself/herself.2. in his/her hand luggage.3. in his/her checked luggage..the combination regrouping all the correct statements is ?
1, 4.
.safety matches or lighters passengers or crew may bring one small packet of safety matches or a cigarette lighter intended for use by an individual when carried on the person...note strike anywhere matches are forbidden for air transport.
Question 230-39 : An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants including pilots..the pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children 5 and 6 years old..the boarding of all passengers is ?
Forbidden.
.the children are above 2 years and need a seat.
Question 230-40 : In vfr public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?
Never.
.the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot...
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