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Question 230-1 : The term decision height dh is used for ? [ Formation assignment ]
A precision approach
Question 230-2 : Ops regulationaccording to air ops a life jacket is mandatory for each person on board a land aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than ?
50 nm.
easa air ops catidea285 flight over water a the following aeroplanes shall be equipped with a life jacket for each person on board or equivalent flotation device for each person on board younger than 24 months stowed in a position that is readily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided 1 landplanes operated over water at a distance of more than 50 nm from the shore or taking off or landing at an aerodrome where the take off or approach path is so disposed over water that there would be a likelihood of a ditching and 2 seaplanes operated over water100 nm. 200 nm. 400 nm.
Question 230-3 : Ops regulationon overwater flights an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to ?
400 nm or 120 minutes at cruising speed.
easa air ops catidea285 flight over water on overwater flights an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land which is suitable for making an emergency landing greater than that corresponding to 1 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles whichever is the lesser for aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit s becoming inoperative at any point along the route orplanned diversions or2 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nautical miles whichever is the lesser for all other aeroplanes200 nm or 45 minutes at cruising speed. 100 nm or 30 minutes at cruising speed. 300 nm or 90 minutes at cruising speed.
Question 230-4 : Amc4 spalvo100 ecqb2022 v4 a category ii precision approach cat ii is an approach with ?
A decision height of at least 100 ft.
At landing two types of procedures exist non precision approach rnavlnav ndb ndbdme vor vordme llz llzdme vdf sra and precision approach ils gls mls par for a non precision approach we use the word mdh a minimum descent height altitude for a precision approach we use the word dh a decision height altitude at mdh a you are able to level your aircraft at the minimum descent height until reaching a specific point wich can be based on time or distance from a facility offering you opportunity to established visual contact with the runway to perform a landingat dh a you must initiate a go around procedure minimum descent height mdh for an ils approach without the glidepath localizer only 250 ftfor a for a vordme approach 250 ftfor a vor approach 300 ftfor a ndb approach 350 ftfor a rnavlnav approach 300 ftdecision height dh for ils cat ii 100 ftfor ils cat i 200 ftfor a gls gnss landing system similar to traditional category i approachesA decision height of at least 200 ft a decision height of at least 50 ft no decision height
Question 230-5 : A category i precision approach cat i is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least ?
550 m.
Category i cat i approach operation means a precision instrument approach and landing using an instrument landing system ils microwave landing system mls gls ground based augmented global navigation satellite system gnssgbas landing system precision approach radar par or gnss using a satellite based augmentation system sbas with a decision height dh not lower than 200 ft and with a runway visual range rvr not less than 550 m350 m. 800 m. 500 m.
Question 230-6 : With the control display unit cdu of an inertial navigation system ins you can read the following information desired track dtk = 100° track tk = 120°you can conclude that the ?
Track error angle tke is right r .
Dalton we are diverging too also isn't it as you can see the answer aircraft is diverging from its ideal course is not the right answermaybe the aircraft is diverging maybe the aircraft is converging maybe we are flying parallel to the desired track from the given informations we are unable to conclude on this marcusorjehag info from cdu would be 'tke right' and not divergent after all they are asking for the cdu presentation of the infoTrack error angle (tke) is left (l). aircraft is converging towards its ideal course. aircraft is diverging from its ideal course.
Question 230-7 : The abbreviation mnps means ?
Minimum navigation performance specification.
Main navigation performance specification maximum navigation performance specification magnetic navigation performance specification
Question 230-8 : For aeroplanes certified before the 1 april 1998 cockpit voice recorder cvr when required must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last ?
30 minutes of operation.
Easa air opscatidea185 a an operator shall not operate any aeroplane with a maximum certificated take off mass over 5 700 kg first issued with an individual certificate of airworthiness before 1 april 1998 unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which records 1 voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio 2 the aural environment of the flight deck 3 voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone system 4 voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker and 5 voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the public address system if installed b the cockpit voice recorder shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of its operation c the cockpit voice recorder must start to record prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power and continue to record until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power d the cockpit voice recorder must have adevice to assist in locating that recorder in water25 hours of operation. flight. 48 hours of operation.
Question 230-9 : On board a non pressurised aircraft 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than ?
10 000 ft and 13 000 ft.
Supplemental oxygen for non pressurised aeroplanes 262411 000 ft and 13 000 ft. 11 000 ft and 12 000 ft. 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft.
Question 230-10 : On board a pressurized aircraft a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization throughout the flight period during which the pressure ?
13 000 ft.
Oxygen minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for pressurised aeroplanes 262511 000 ft. 12 000 ft. 10 000 ft.
Question 230-11 : For the flight crew members quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurised aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above ?
25 000 ft.
Supplemental oxygen pressurised aeroplanesa b iv oxygen masks for use by flight crew members in pressurised aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above 25 000 ft shall be a quick donning type of mask 13 000 ft. 29 000 ft. 10 000 ft.
Question 230-12 : All aeroplanes must be fitted with a flight data recorder fdr when their maximum certificated take off mass is greater than ?
5700 kg.
Catidea190 flight data recorderthe following aeroplanes shall be equipped with a flight data recorder fdr that uses a digital method of recording and storing data and for which a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium is available 1 aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5 700 kg and first issued with an individual cofa on or after 1 june 1990 2 turbine engined aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5 700 kg and first issued with an individual cofa before 1 june 1990 and 3 multi engined turbine powered aeroplanes with an mctom of 5 700 kg or less with an mopsc of more than nine and first issued with an individual cofa on or after 1 april 199814000 kg. 27000 kg. 20000 kg.
Question 230-13 : The minimum lateral separation in the nat region is ?
60 nm between aircraft meeting minimum navigation performance specifications.
Please download the guidance concerning air navigation in and above the north atlantic mnps airspace edition 2010 pdf675163 route planninglateral separation minima & resulting route definition conventions1631 in the north atlantic mnps airspace the lateral separation standard is 60 nm since 60 nm is equivalent to one degree of latitude along any meridian and given that the vast majority of flights through this airspace are generally eastbound or westbound this standard is deemed to be met by tracks separated by one degree of latitude at common meridians60 nm between all aircraft operating below mnps airspace. 90 nm between aircraft flying above fl285. 90 nm between all aircraft flying in the nat region.
Question 230-14 : Which separation will be provided if reduced vertical separation minimum rvsm is used when operating in mnps airspace ?
60 nm lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
Doc 9574 manual on implementation of a 300 m 1000 ft vertical separation minimum between fl 290 and fl 410 inclusive rvsm refers to a verticalseparation minimum of 300 m 1000 ft between fl 290 and fl 410 inclusivemnpsa manual in the mnps airspace the lateral separation standard is 60 nm90 nm lateral and 1000 ft vertical. 60 nm lateral and 500 ft vertical. 90 nm lateral and 500 ft vertical.
Question 230-15 : Following an explosive decompression the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is ?
8000 ft.
2500 ft. 14000 ft. 25000 ft.
Question 230-16 : The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation position lights located to the rear of the aircraft is ?
140°.
1463same for helicopters110°. 220°. 70°.
Question 230-17 : During a night flight an observer located in the cockpit seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track will first see the ?
Green light.
1463this aircraft coming in front of us from the right will not cut our path he will stay on our right in the opposite direction 1464White light. red light. red and white flashing light.
Question 230-18 : During a night flight an observer located in the cockpit seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track will first see the ?
Red steady light.
1463take care this aircraft coming in front of us from the left will not cut our path he will stay on our left in the opposite direction 1662Green steady light. white steady light. green and white flashing light.
Question 230-19 : The coverage angle of the red navigationposition light is ?
110°.
1463140°. 70°. 220°.
Question 230-20 : Astronomic precession ?
Causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the northern hemisphere.
Astronomic precession is 'earth rate' the gyro drift due to earth rotation 15° h x sin lm it is the angular velocity or rate of the earth's rotationit causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the northern hemisphereit causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphereCauses the gyro axis to spin to the left in the northern hemisphere. is zero at the north pole. is zero at the south pole.
Question 230-21 : The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category d aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of ?
3600 m.
Lowest minima for circling category a 1500 mcategory b 1600 mcategory c 2400 mcategory d 3600 m1500 m. 2400 m. 1600 m.
Question 230-22 : The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category c aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of ?
2400 m.
Lowest minima for circling category a 1500 mcategory b 1600 mcategory c 2400 mcategory d 3600 m3600 m. 1600 m. 1500 m.
Question 230-23 : The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category b aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of ?
1600 m.
Lowest minima for circling category a 1500 mcategory b 1600 mcategory c 2400 mcategory d 3600 m1500 m. 3600 m. 2600 m.
Question 230-24 : The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category a aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of ?
1500 m.
Lowest minima for circling category a 1500 mcategory b 1600 mcategory c 2400 mcategory d 3600 m2400 m. 3600 m. 1600 m.
Question 230-25 : Ops regulationduring a conventional approach the minimum descent height mdh is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than ?
2 m 7 ft below the aerodrome altitude.
Icao annex 6 part 1 operation of aircraft minimum descent altitude mda or minimum descent height mdh a specified altitude or height in a non precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual referencenote 1 minimum descent altitude mda is referenced to mean sea level and minimum descent height mdh is referenced to the aerodrome elevation or to the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m 7 ft below the aerodrome elevationa minimum descent height for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevationnote 2 the required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position in relation to the desired flight path in the case of a circling approach the required visual reference is the runway environmentnote 3 for convenience when both expressions are used they may be written in the form 'minimum descent altitudeheight' and abbreviated 'mdah'4 m (14 ft) above the aerodrome altitude. 2 m (7 ft) above the aerodrome altitude. 4 m (14 ft) below the aerodrome altitude.
Question 230-26 : Long range flights and etopsa polar track is a part of a track which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than ?
6 micro tesla.
Doc nat mnps navigation in the area of compass unreliability8511 as aircraft move towards the earth's north magnetic pole the horizontal field strength reduces and the ability of the compass to accurately sense magnetic north is reduced it is generally recognised that when the horizontal magnetic field strength falls below 6000 nanotesla the magnetic compass can no longer be considered to be reliable moreover when the horizontal magnetic field strength falls below 3000 nanotesla the magnetic compass is considered to be unuseablethis area of uncertainty around a magnetic pole is known as the 6 micro tesla zone a track is considered as 'polar track' when a part of the track is within this area38 micro-tesla. 10 micro-tesla. 17 micro-tesla.
Question 230-27 : Long range flights and etopsarriving at the point of entry into mnps minimum navigation performance specification airspace except shanwick oceanic and not having yet received the oceanic clearance the crew ?
Keeps flying in accordance with the current flight plan.
Returns to base immediately carries out a holding pattern keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the current flight plan
Question 230-28 : Penetration into the nat mnps airspace is ?
Subject to an oceanic clearance.
Subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not). not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled. subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed.
Question 230-29 : The north atlantic airspace is regulated among other according to ?
The icao document 7030 additional regional procedures.
Rules issued by the bordering states (document 6530) rules common to the bordering states, grouped in document 7050 (north atlantic ocean airspace) canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace
Question 230-30 : After an accident the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of ?
60 days.
Cat mpa195 handling of flight recorder recordings preservation production protection and usefollowing an accident a serious incident or an occurrence identified by the investigating authority the operator of an aircraft shall preserve the original recorded data for a period of 60 days or until otherwise directed by the investigating authority30 days. 90 days. 45 days.
Question 230-31 : Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information the operator will see that this file is kept on ground it contains more particularly 1 the weather conditions for the day2 one copy of the operational flight plan and if required the weight and balance sheet3 ?
2 3 4 5.
Cat mpa185 information to be retained on the ground a the operator shall ensure that at least for the duration of each flight or series of flights 1 information relevant to the flight and appropriate for the type of operation is preserved on the ground 2 the information is retained until it has been duplicated at the place at which it will be stored or if this is impracticable 3 the same information is carried in a fireproof container in the aircraft b the information referred to in a includes 1 a copy of the operational flight plan where appropriate 2 copies of the relevant part s of the aircraft technical log 3 route specific notam documentation if specifically edited by the operator 4 mass and balance documentation if required and 5 special loads notification2, 4. 1, 3, 5. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Question 230-32 : The lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category b aeroplane for circling are ?
Mdh=500 ft and visibility=1600 m.
Lowest minima for circling category a 1500 mcategory b 1600 mcategory c 2400 mcategory d 3600 mMdh=400 ft and visibility=1500 m mdh=600 ft and visibility=2400 m mdh=700 ft and visibility=2600 m
Question 230-33 : For a category iii a approach the rvr shall not be less than ?
200 m.
Amc5 spalvo100250 m. 230 m. 300 m.
Question 230-34 : An operator must ensure that system minima for 'non precision approach procedures' which are based upon the use of ils without glidepath loc only vor ndb sra and vdf are no lower than mdh following value with ?
Ndb facility lowest mdh=350 ft.
At landing two types of procedures exist non precision approach rnavlnav ndb ndbdme vor vordme llz llzdme vdf sra and precision approach ils gls mls par for a non precision approach we use the word mdh a minimum descent height altitude for a precision approach we use the word dh a decision height altitude at mdh a you are able to level your aircraft at the minimum descent height until reaching a specific point wich can be based on time or distance from a facility offering you opportunity to established visual contact with the runway to perform a landingat dh a you must initiate a go around procedure minimum descent height mdh for an ils approach without the glidepath localizer only 250 ftfor a for a vordme approach 250 ftfor a vor approach 300 ftfor a ndb approach 350 ftfor a rnavlnav approach 300 ftdecision height dh for ils cat ii 100 ftfor ils cat i 200 ftfor a gls gnss landing system similar to traditional category i approachesIls facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest mdh=200 ft vor facility, lowest mdh=250 ft vor/dme facility, lowest mdh=300 ft
Question 230-35 : An operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at least ?
3 months.
Oromlr115 record keeping b the following information used for the preparation and execution of a flight and associated reports shall be stored for 3 months 1 the operational flight plan if applicable 2 route specific notice s to airmen notam and aeronautical information services ais briefing documentation if edited by the operator 3 mass and balance documentation 4 notification of special loads including written information to the commanderpilot in command about dangerous goods 5 the journey log or equivalent and 6 flight report s for recording details of any occurrence or any event that the commanderpilot in command deems necessary to report or record12 months. 15 months. 3 years.
Question 230-36 : An operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless ?
He has carried out at least 3 take offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same typeclass or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 90 days.
part fcl060 recent experience b aeroplanes helicopters powered lift airships and sailplanes a pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers 1 as pic or co pilot unless heshe has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 3 take offs approaches and landings in an aircraft of the same type or class or an ffs representing that type or class the 3 take offs and landings shall be performed in either multi pilot or single pilot operations depending on the privileges held by the pilotHe has carried out at least 3 flights as commander in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
Question 230-37 : The minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single pilot operation under ifr shall be ?
5 ifr flights including 3 instrument approaches carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single pilot role.
Part orofc202 single pilot operations under ifr c for aeroplane operations under ifr the pilot shall have 1 a minimum of 50 hours flight time under ifr on the relevant type or class of aeroplane of which 10 hours are as commander and 2 completed during the preceding 90 days on the relevant type or class of aeroplane i five ifr flights including three instrument approaches in a single pilot role or ii an ifr instrument approach check5 ifr flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role. 5 ifr flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role. 3 ifr flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
Question 230-38 : For a category iii b approach the rvr shall not be less than ?
75 m.
Amc5 spalvo100150 m 100 m 50 m
Question 230-39 : A passenger is allowed to carry match boxes 1 on himselfherself2 in hisher hand luggage3 in hisher checked luggagethe combination regrouping all the correct statements is ?
1 4.
Safety matches or lighters passengers or crew may bring one small packet of safety matches or a cigarette lighter intended for use by an individual when carried on the personnote strike anywhere matches are forbidden for air transport1, 2, 3. 1, 2. 2, 3.
Question 230-40 : An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants including pilots the pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children 5 and 6 years old the boarding of all passengers is ?
Forbidden.
The children are above 2 years and need a seatAuthorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to release their seat belt. authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt. no other particular precautions are necessary. authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.
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