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Question 234-1 : An operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than... i...., and when carrying... ii... or more passengers, unless at least one cabin crew is included. ? [ Formation assignment ]
I 19 ii one
Easa air ops.oro.cc.100 number and composition of cabin crew.. eu ops 1.990 number and composition of cabin crew. a an operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19, when carrying one or more passengers, unless at least one cabin crew member is included in the crew for the purpose of performing duties, specified in the operations manual, in the interests of the safety of passengers.
Question 234-2 : An operator shall not operate across areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless it is equipped with..1 signalling equipment.2 at least one elt.3 at least 2 elts.4 additional survival equipment for the route to be flown...the combination regrouping all the correct ?
1, 2, 4.
.cat.ide.a.305 survival equipment.aeroplanes operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped with.1 signalling equipment to make the distress signals .2 at least one elt s and .3 additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the number of persons on board....cat.ide.h.305 survival equipment.helicopters operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped with .a signalling equipment to make distress signals .b at least one elt s and .c additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the number of persons on board.
Question 234-3 : Without an etops approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two engined aeroplanes in performance class a , with a maximum take off mass of 45360 kg or more, is the distance flown in..... minutes at the one engine inoperative speed. ?
60.
Easa air ops.regulation eu no 965/2012.cat.op.mpa.140 maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two engined aeroplanes without an etops approval. a unless approved by the competent authority in accordance with annex v part spa , subpart f, the operator shall not operate a two engined aeroplane over a route that contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, under standard conditions in still air, than.. 1 for performance class a aeroplanes with either. i a maximum operational passenger seating cofiguration mopsc of 20 or more or. ii a maximum take off mass of 45360 kg or more,.the distance flown in 60 minutes at the one engine inoperative oei cruising speed determined in accordance with b.. 2 for performance class a aeroplanes with.. i an mopsc of 19 or less and. ii a maximum take off mass less than 45360 kg,.the distance flown in 120 minutes or, subject to approval by the competent authority, up to 180 minutes for turbo jet aeroplanes, at the oei cruise speed determined in accordance with b.. 3 for performance class b or c aeroplanes.. i the distance flown in 120 minutes at the oei cruise speed determined in accordance with b or. ii 300 nm, whichever is less... b the operator shall determine a speed for the calculation of the maximum distance to an adequate aerodrome for each two engined aeroplane.type or variant operated, not exceeding vmo maximum operating speed based upon the true airspeed that the aeroplane can maintain with one engine inoperative... c the operator shall include the following data, specific to each type or variant, in the operations manual. 1 the determined oei cruising speed and. 2 the determined maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome... d to obtain the approval referred to in a 2 , the operator shall provide evidence that. 1 the aeroplane/engine combination holds an extended range operations with two engined aeroplanes etops type design and reliability approval for the intended operation.. 2 a set of conditions has been implemented to ensure that the aeroplane and its engines are maintained to meet the necessary reliability criteria and. 3 the flight crew and all other operations personnel involved are trained and suitably qualified to conduct the intended operation.
Question 234-4 : Following a decompression, the maximum pressure altitude at which each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty are able to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation is ?
10000 ft.
. supplemental oxygen for non pressurised aeroplanes. 2624.you are not able to flight at an altitude above 10000 ft without supplemental oxy thus, at or below 10000 ft, you are able to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation.
Question 234-5 : Assuming a multi engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board..the cruising speed is 180 kt. the aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight with the critical power unit becoming inoperative. the track will overfly water for a distance of 380 nm from land which is suitable for making an ?
3 life rafts of 30 seat capacity.
Eu ops 1.830 life rafts and survival. '120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser, for aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit s becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions '..we need more than two hours to reach the diversion, we need life rafts...in accordance with eu ops the number of life rafts to be carried on board must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity..we need, at least, 3 life rafts of 30 seat capacity.
Question 234-6 : An operator must ensure that the mdh for an ils approach without the glidepath loc only is not lower than ?
250 ft.
.at landing, two types of procedures exist. non precision approach rnav/lnav, ndb, ndb/dme, vor, vor/dme, llz, llz/dme, vdf, sra.and. precision approach ils, gls, mls, par.. ..for a non precision approach we use the word mdh a minimum descent height altitude...for a precision approach we use the word dh a decision height altitude...at mdh a you are able to level your aircraft at the minimum descent height, until reaching a specific point wich can be based on time or distance from a facility , offering you opportunity to established visual contact with the runway to perform a landing...at dh a you must initiate a go around procedure... ..minimum descent height mdh.for an ils approach without the glidepath localizer only 250 ft...for a for a vor/dme approach 250 ft...for a vor approach 300 ft...for a ndb approach 350 ft...for a rnav/lnav approach 300 ft...decision height dh.for ils cat ii 100 ft...for ils cat i 200 ft...for a gls gnss landing system similar to traditional category i approaches.
Question 234-7 : An operator must ensure that the mdh for a vor approach is not lower than ?
300 ft.
.at landing, two types of procedures exist. non precision approach rnav/lnav, ndb, ndb/dme, vor, vor/dme, llz, llz/dme, vdf, sra.and. precision approach ils, gls, mls, par.. ..for a non precision approach we use the word mdh a minimum descent height altitude...for a precision approach we use the word dh a decision height altitude...at mdh a you are able to level your aircraft at the minimum descent height, until reaching a specific point wich can be based on time or distance from a facility , offering you opportunity to established visual contact with the runway to perform a landing...at dh a you must initiate a go around procedure... ..minimum descent height mdh.for an ils approach without the glidepath localizer only 250 ft...for a for a vor/dme approach 250 ft...for a vor approach 300 ft...for a ndb approach 350 ft...for a rnav/lnav approach 300 ft...decision height dh.for ils cat ii 100 ft...for ils cat i 200 ft...for a gls gnss landing system similar to traditional category i approaches.
Question 234-8 : For aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last ?
25 hours of operation.
.cat.ide.a.190 flight data recorder.the following aeroplanes shall be equipped with a flight data recorder fdr that uses a digital method of recording and storing data and for which a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium is available 965/2012.1 aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5 700 kg and first issued with an individual cofa on or after 1 june 1990 .2 turbine engined aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5 700 kg and first issued with an individual cofa before 1 june 1990 and .3 multi engined turbine powered aeroplanes with an mctom of 5 700 kg or less, with an mopsc of more than nine and first issued with an individual cofa on or after 1 april 1998...b the fdr shall record .1 time, altitude, airspeed, normal acceleration and heading and be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the preceding 25 hours for aeroplanes referred to in a 2 with an mctom of less than 27 000 kg
Question 234-9 : Easa air ops regulation..in accordance with ops, for a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than ?
2 hours.
Ops oxygen minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for pressurised aeroplanes.. /com en/com070 512.jpg..
Question 234-10 : According to annex 6, what is the definition of an air operator certificate ?
A certificate authorising an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport operations.
.icao annex 6.an air operator certificate aoc is a certificate authorizing an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport operations...an operator shall not operate an aeroplane for the purpose of commercial air transportation otherwise than under, and in accordance with, the terms and conditions of an air operator certificate... easa air ops.an aoc specifies the. a name and location principal place of business of the operator. b date of issue and period of validity. c description of the type of operations authorised. d type s of aeroplane s authorised for use. e registration markings of the authorised aeroplane s except that operators may obtain approval for a system to inform the authority about the registration markings for aeroplanes operated under its aoc. f authorised areas of operation. g special limitations and. h special authorisations/approvals.
Question 234-11 : According to annex 6, what is the definition of required navigation performance rnp ?
A statement of the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace.
Question 234-12 : An aircraft must be equipped with an audio selector panel accessible to each required flight crew member ?
When operating under ifr.
.cat.ide.a.335 audio selector panel.aeroplanes operated under ifr shall be equipped with an audio selector panel operable from each required flight crew member station...cat.ide.h.335 audio selector panel.helicopters operated under ifr shall be equipped with an audio selector panel operable from each required flight crew member station.
Question 234-13 : Ops regulation..according to air ops, 'pre flight inspection' is the inspection carried out ?
Before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight. it does not include defect rectification.
.the following definitions from part 145 shall apply. a pre flight inspection means the inspection carried out before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight. it does not include defect rectification.
Question 234-14 : Regarding all weather operations, if vat is from 91 kt to 120 kt, the aeroplane is in ?
Category b.
.classification of aeroplanes.the criteria taken into consideration for the classification of aeroplanes by categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold vat which is equal to the stalling speed vso multiplied by 1.3 or vs1g multiplied by 1.23 in the landing configuration at the maximum certificated landing mass. if both vso and vs1g are available, the higher resulting vat shall be used. the aeroplane categories corresponding to vat values are in the table below. 2627
Question 234-15 : Regarding all weather operations, if vat is from 121 kt to 140 kt, the aeroplane is in ?
Category c.
.classification of aeroplanes.the criteria taken into consideration for the classification of aeroplanes by categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold vat which is equal to the stalling speed vso multiplied by 1.3 or vs1g multiplied by 1.23 in the landing configuration at the maximum certificated landing mass. if both vso and vs1g are available, the higher resulting vat shall be used. the aeroplane categories corresponding to vat values are in the table below. 2627
Question 234-16 : According to north atlantic mnpsa operations manual, what is the transponder code to be selected continuously 30 min after entry into nat airspace ?
Code 2000.
Question 234-17 : A minimum time track is a ?
Track determined according to wind conditions.
.north atlantic tracks nat are trans atlantic routes that stretch from the northeast of north america to western europe across the atlantic ocean. they ensure aircraft are separated over the ocean, where there is little radar coverage. entrance and movement along these tracks is controlled by special oceanic center air traffic controllers to maintain separation between airplanes. the primary purpose of these routes is to provide a minimum time route mtr..they are aligned in such a way as to minimize any head winds and maximize tail winds impact on the aircraft. this results in much more efficiency by reducing fuel burn and flight time. to make such efficiencies possible, the routes are created daily to take account of the shifting of the winds aloft.
Question 234-18 : Without etops approval, an operator shall not operate a two engined class a aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown ?
In 60 minutes at the one engine inoperative cruise speed.
Question 234-19 : In the case of overheating of the brakes following the landing, the appropriate action at the parking position is..1 set parking brake on.2 set parking brake off, with chocks in position.3 spray water on the brakes.4 ventilate the brakes.. the combination regrouping of all the correct statements ?
2, 4.
Question 234-20 : The minimum equipment list of an aircraft is found in the ?
Operations manual.
Question 234-21 : Which part prescribes requirements for approved maintenance organisations ?
Part 145.
Question 234-22 : What is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a non precision approach available ?
Non precision minima rvr and the ceiling at or above mdh plus 200 ft/1000 m.
.cat.op.mpa.185 planning minima for ifr flights aeroplanes..... b planning minima for a destination aerodrome other than an isolated destination aerodrome..the operator shall only select the destination aerodrome when.. 1 the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable planning minima as follows.. i rvr/visibility vis specified in accordance with cat.op.mpa.110 and.. ii for an npa or a circling operation, the ceiling at or above mdh.or.. 2 two destination alternate aerodromes are selected... c planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome, isolated aerodrome, fuel en route alternate fuel era aerodrome, en route alternate era aerodrome..the operator shall only select an aerodrome for one of these purposes when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima in table 1...table 1 planning minima.destination alternate aerodrome, isolated destination aerodrome, fuel era and era aerodrome. 761..in other words, at flight preparation, you have to downgrade the available procedure according to table 1..while in flight, if you have to divert to your alternate destination airport, you will use the normal available procedure..downgrading the procedure is a safety rule at preparation only.
Question 234-23 : Ops regulation..according to easa air ops, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a cat ii approach available ?
Rvr according to cat i.
Easa air ops..regulation eu 965/2012 on air operations..cat.op.mpa.185 planning minima for ifr flights aeroplanes......... b planning minima for a destination aerodrome other than an isolated destination aerodrome...the operator shall only select the destination aerodrome when.. 1 the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable planning minima as follows.. i rvr/visibility vis specified in accordance with cat.op.mpa.110 and.. ii for an npa or a circling operation, the ceiling at or above mdh..or.. 2 two destination alternate aerodromes are selected.... c planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome, isolated aerodrome, fuel en route alternate fuel era aerodrome, en route alternate era aerodrome...the operator shall only select an aerodrome for one of these purposes when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima in table 1....table 1...planning minima..destination alternate aerodrome, isolated destination aerodrome, fuel era and era aerodrome. 761...in other words, at flight preparation, you have to downgrade the available procedure according to table 1..while in flight, if you have to divert to your alternate destination airport, you will use the normal available procedure..downgrading the procedure is a safety rule at preparation only.
Question 234-24 : What minimum navigation equipment is required for operations under ifr, or under vfr over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks ?
One vor receiving system, one adf system, one dme.
. amc2 cat.ide.a.345 communication, navigation and surveillance equipment for operations under ifr or under vfr over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks..an acceptable number and type of communication and navigation equipment is .1 one vhf omnidirectional radio range vor receiving system, one automatic direction finder adf system, one distance measuring equipment dme , except that an adf system need not be installed provided that the use of adf is not required in any phase of the planned flight .2 one instrument landing system ils or microwave landing system mls where ils or mls is required for approach navigation purposes .3 one marker beacon receiving system where a marker beacon is required for approach navigation purposes .4 area navigation equipment when area navigation is required for the route being flown e.g. equipment required by part spa .5 an additional dme system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on dme signals .6 an additional vor receiving system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on vor signals and .7 an additional adf system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on non directional beacon ndb signals.
Question 234-25 : A flight via the shannon gander great circle with no mnps certification can be planned ?
At fl 280 or less.
.mnps aispace over nat north atlantic tracks extends vertically from fl285 to fl420, with the normally used cruising levels lying from fl290 to fl410. without mnps certification, a flight can be planned at fl 280 or less.
Question 234-26 : In the mnps airspace, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system ?
Notify air traffic control and wait for instructions within a reasonable period.
Question 234-27 : Easa air ops regulation..according to ops, planning minima for a destination aerodrome with an applicable precision approach procedure is ?
Rvr / visibility specified in accordance with air ops, part cat.
..destination minima..planning minima for a destination aerodrome with a precision approach is the precision approach minima and because it is a precision approach , we need the rvr to be at or above minima for the period eta + or 1h.....planning minima for a destination aerodrome with a non precision approach is the non precision approach minima and because it is non precision approach , we need the rvr/mdh/ceiling to be at or above minima for the period eta + or 1h.....alternate minima..planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome with a precision approach will be the non precision approach minima and because it is non precision approach , we need the rvr/mdh/ceiling to be at or above minima for the period eta + or 1h.....planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome with a non precision approach will be the non precision approach minima +200 ft, +1000 m, we need rvr+1000m/mdh+200ft/ceiling for the period eta + or 1h.
Question 234-28 : Ops regulation..according to air ops, what is the planning minima for a destination aerodrome, if it is equipped with a non precision approach only ?
Rvr / visibility specified in accordance with air ops, and the ceiling at or above mdh.
Destination minima..planning minima for a destination aerodrome with a precision approach is the precision approach minima and because it is a precision approach , we need the rvr to be at or above minima for the period eta + or 1h.....planning minima for a destination aerodrome with a non precision approach is the non precision approach minima and because it is non precision approach , we need the rvr/mdh/ceiling to be at or above minima for the period eta + or 1h.....alternate minima..planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome with a precision approach will be the non precision approach minima and because it is non precision approach , we need the rvr/mdh/ceiling to be at or above minima for the period eta + or 1h.....planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome with a non precision approach will be the non precision approach minima +200 ft, +1000 m, we need rvr+1000m/mdh+200ft/ceiling for the period eta + or 1h.
Question 234-29 : What is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a cat i approach available ?
Non precision minima rvr and the ceiling at or above mdh.
Destination minima..planning minima for a destination aerodrome with a precision approach is the precision approach minima and because it is a precision approach , we need the rvr to be at or above minima for the period eta + or 1h.....planning minima for a destination aerodrome with a non precision approach is the non precision approach minima and because it is non precision approach , we need the rvr/mdh/ceiling to be at or above minima for the period eta + or 1h.....alternate minima..planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome with a precision approach will be the non precision approach minima and because it is non precision approach , we need the rvr/mdh/ceiling to be at or above minima for the period eta + or 1h.....planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome with a non precision approach will be the non precision approach minima +200 ft, +1000 m, we need rvr+1000m/mdh+200ft/ceiling for the period eta + or 1h.
Question 234-30 : The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin depends on the approved number of ?
Seats in the cabin.
Question 234-31 : In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided.1 during taxying.2 during take off.3 during landing.4 whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.5 during other phases of the flight while at his station.the combination ?
2, 3, 4.
Eu ops 1.320 seats, safety belts and harnesses. a crew members.. 1 during take off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided... 2 during other phases of the flight each flight crew member in the cockpit shall keep his safety belt * fastened while at his station... *safety belts only, not harnesses.
Question 234-32 : Who is responsible for establishing aerodrome operating minima for each aerodrome planned to be used for commercial purposes ?
The operator.
Easa air ops.part cat cat.op.mpa.110 aerodrome operating minima...eu ops 1.225 aerodrome operating minima. a an operator shall specify aerodrome operating minima, established in accordance with eu ops 1.430 for each departure, destination or alternate aerodrome authorised to be used in accordance with eu ops 1.220.
Question 234-33 : Ops regulation..according to air ops, the selection of a destination alternate is not required when ?
The destination is isolated and no adequate destination alternate exists.
Question 234-34 : Ops regulation..in accordance with air ops, during a vor procedure, if the reported rvr/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond ?
1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport on the final approach segment.
Easa air ops.cat.op.mpa.305.
Question 234-35 : Ops regulation..in accordance with air ops, where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, if the reported rvr/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond ?
1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport.
.easa air ops.cat.op.mpa.305.
Question 234-36 : Which is the correct statement for pre flight inspections ?
It can be carried out by someone not affiliated with a part 145 organisation.
.the preflight inspection can be done by pilots, before every flight.
Question 234-37 : Icao annex 6.. in accordance with icao annex 6 part i, the flight data recorder is to be located in the aircraft ?
As far to the rear as practicable.
Ecqb03 july 2016
Question 234-38 : An aerodrome with weather reports indicating that the weather conditions are at or above operation minima from one hour prior to one hour after the anticipated arrival is defined as ?
Suitable.
Ecqb03 september 2016
Question 234-39 : Who is to ensure safe handling of flights ?
The operator.
Question 234-40 : The set processes by which an aircraft with the applicable airworthiness requirements and remains in a condition for safe operation is called as ?
Continuing airworthiness.
Ecqb03, september 2016....continuing airworthiness is the process by which a newly built aircraft is thereafter kept in a condition where it remains airworthy or in other words technically fit for flight. in the words of icao 'all of the processes ensuring that, at any time in its life, an aeroplane complies with the technical conditions fixed to the issue of the certificate of airworthiness and is in a condition for safe operation'.
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