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Question 236-1 : An operator with a workforce of 25 full time equivalents ftes should be considered as ? [ Formation assignment ]

Complex

Question 236-2 : Special categories of passengers scps or persons with reduced mobility prms should be allocated to specific seats which statement is correct ?

Prms should not be placed in a seat which would restrict any exit path in the case of an emergency.

Easa air opsregulation eu no 9652012catopmpa155 carriage of special categories of passengers scps
exemple 340: Prms should not be placed in a seat which would restrict any exit path in the case of an emergency
Prms should not be placed in a seat which would restrict any exit path in the case of an emergency unless accompanied by an able bodied adult. prms should be placed in a seat which would be most comfortable for themselves because they have specific requirements. prms should always be placed in the middle of the aircraft.

Question 236-3 : Etops en route alternate aerodrome planning minimaan operator shall only select an aerodrome as an etops en route alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts or any combination thereof indicate that between the anticipated time of landing until one hour after the latest ?

The planning minima.

Easa air opsspaetops115 etops en route alternate aerodrome planning minima
exemple 344: The planning minima
The airport operational minima. the operational minima, increased by 25% the operational minima, increased by 50%.

Question 236-4 : According to easa air ops the mdh for a category b aircraft circling is ?

500 ft.

Easa air opspart cat amc7 catopmpa110 aerodrome operating minima
exemple 348: 500 ft
600 ft. 700 ft. 800 ft.

Question 236-5 : Specific requirements relating to the transport of dangerous goods by commercial aircraft are in ?

Part spa subpart g.

exemple 352: Part spa subpart g
Part-oro subpart d. part-fcl subpart a. part-fcl subpart h.

Question 236-6 : A visual approach is ?

An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually providing that he has the necessary visual criteria.

exemple 356: An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually providing that he has the necessary visual criteria
Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in vmc. an approach made under vfr using height and track guidance. the circling part of a precision approach.

Question 236-7 : An operator shall manage a flight data monitoring programme for aeroplanes with a take off mass of more than ?

27000 kg.

Easa air opspart oro oroaoc130 flight data monitoring
exemple 360: 27000 kg
5700 kg. 16000 kg. 2000 kg.

Question 236-8 : An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with an elt ?

Transmitting simultaneously on 1215 mhz and 406 mhz.

Easa air opscatidea280 emergency locator transmitter elt
exemple 364: Transmitting simultaneously on 1215 mhz and 406 mhz
Transmitting on 406 mhz. transmitting on 121.5 mhz. transmitting simultaneously on 121.5 mhz and 208 mhz.

Question 236-9 : An operator must ensure that cabin crew can communicate in ?

A common language.

Cat mpa120 common languagethe operator shall ensure that all crew members can communicate with each other in a common language
exemple 368: A common language
English. a common language and in english. a certified icao language.

Question 236-10 : An operator shall establish implement and maintain a management system that includes ?

Clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the operator including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager.

Easa air opsoro 200 management system a the operator shall establish implement and maintain a management system that includes 1 clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the operator including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager 2 a description of the overall philosophies and principles of the operator with regard to safety referred to as the safety policy 3 the identification of aviation safety hazards entailed by the activities of the operator their evaluation and the management of associated risks including taking actions to mitigate the risk and verify their effectiveness 4 maintaining personnel trained and competent to perform their tasks 5 documentation of all management system key processes including a process for making personnel aware of their responsibilities and the procedure for amending this documentation 6 a function to monitor compliance of the operator with the relevant requirements compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system of findings to the accountable manager to ensure effective implementation of corrective actions as necessary and 7 any additional requirements that are prescribed in the relevant subparts of this annex or other applicable annexes b the management system shall correspond to the size of the operator and the nature and complexity of its activities taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in these activities
exemple 372: Clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the operator including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager
A report system for the referent authority. a description of the system for the referent authority. .

Question 236-11 : Who has the final authority to carry out decisions concerning the specific composition of the cabin crew on a flight ?

The commander.

exemple 376: The commander
The senior cabin crew member. the operator. the dispatcher.

Question 236-12 : Flight and duty time limitations and rest requirementsaccording to easa oro ftl unless the flight crew has been augmented in case of unforeseen circumstances in flight operations the maximum flight duty period may be modified by the commander by not more than ?

3 hours.

Please download easa oro ftl generic interpretation document 070 easa ftl 2016pdf
exemple 380: 3 hours
2 hours. 4 hours. 6 hours.

Question 236-13 : During a flight a commander may delegate the conduct of the flight to ?

Another qualified commander.

Easa air opspart oro orofca201 in flight relief of flight crew members
exemple 384: Another qualified commander
A pilot licence holder. nobody. a senior cabin crew member.

Question 236-14 : Long range flights and etopsmasps means ?

Minimum aircraft system performance specifications.

exemple 388: Minimum aircraft system performance specifications
Minimum airport surety performance system. maximum airport surety performance system. maximum aircraft system performance specifications.

Question 236-15 : Emergency medical kits must be ?

Located on the flight deck.

'emergency medical kit' is different from 'first aid kit' if emk is needed cabin crew need the permission of the commandereasa air ops catidea220 and 225aeroplanes with an mopsc maximum operational passenger seating configuration of more than 30 needs 1 emk when any point of the route is at more than 60 minutes flying time from an aerodrome at which qualified medical assistance could be expected to ba available
exemple 392: Located on the flight deck
Accessible to the cabin crew. readily accessible for use. available in the rear galley, away from the passengers.

Question 236-16 : A pilot who has completed a zftt zero flight time training course shall commence his first flight after obtaining his theoretical certificate not later than ?

21 days.

Orofc220 operator conversion training and checkinge in the case of aeroplanes pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training zftt course shall 1 commence line flying under supervision not later than 21 days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator the content of that training shall be described in the operations manual
exemple 396: 21 days
30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

Question 236-17 : An aeroplane command course requires a commander to carry out under supervision ?

At least 10 sectors.

Part oro orofc205 command coursefor aeroplane and helicopter operations the command course shall include at least the following elements 1 training in an fstd which includes line oriented flight training loft andor flight training 2 the operator proficiency check operating as commander 3 command responsibilities training 4 line training as commander under supervision for a minimum of i 10 flight sectors in the case of aeroplanes and ii 10 hours including at least 10 flight sectors in the case of helicopters 5 completion of a line check as commander and demonstration of adequate knowledge of the route or area to be flown and of the aerodromes including alternate aerodromes facilities and procedures to be used and 6 crew resource management training
exemple 400: At least 10 sectors
10 hours and at least 5 sectors. 10 hours and at least 10 sectors. 20 hours and at least 10 sectors.

Question 236-18 : The reported rvr for the initial part of the take off run is below the limit of the low visibility take off lvto operations therefore ?

Under no circumstance it is possible to take off.

Part spa spalvo100 low visibility operations
exemple 404: Under no circumstance it is possible to take off
It is only possible to take-off if the aircraft is equipped with an approved lateral guidance system. it is only possible to take-off if the aircraft is equipped with two approved lateral guidance systems. it is possible to take-off only if the commander can visually assess that the actual rvr is at or above the limit.

Question 236-19 : A line check is valid for a period of ?

12 months.

Part oro orofc230 recurrent training and checkingc line check each flight crew member shall complete a line check on the aircraft the validity period of the line check shall be 12 calendar months
exemple 408: 12 months
6 months. 18 months. 2 years.

Question 236-20 : A child restraint device crd must be provided for each child on board younger than ?

24 months.

exemple 412: 24 months
6 years. 36 months. 12 months.

Question 236-21 : A pilot may continue a category i approach below dh only if at least one of the following visual references is clearly visible and identified by the pilot 1 a component of the approach ramp lights2 the runway threshold3 the end of runway lights4 a papithe combination regrouping all the correct ?

1 2 4.

exemple 416: 1 2 4
2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 3, 4.

Question 236-22 : Documents relating to a pilot such as his flight time periods or rest time records must be kept by the operator for a period of ?

15 months.

Oromlr115 record keepingrecords on crew member recent experience 15 months
exemple 420: 15 months
18 months. 36 months. 3 months.

Question 236-23 : A differences training is used to extend the privileges of a pilots licence ?

To another variant of aircraft within one class or type rating.

Fcl710 orofc125 fcl135ah
exemple 424: To another variant of aircraft within one class or type rating
To another variant of aircraft within one type rating only. from vfr to ifr. to another variant of aircraft within one class rating only.

Question 236-24 : A flight crew interphone system is mandatory for aeroplane of more than ?

One crew member a maximum certificated take off mass exceeding 15000 kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats.

exemple 428: One crew member a maximum certificated take off mass exceeding 15000 kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats
Two crew members, a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5700 kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 seats. five crew members. three crew members, a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5700 kg.

Question 236-25 : Where would you record information about aircraft operation crew names and duty assignments etc ?

Journey log.

exemple 432: Journey log
Pilot log. flight management system. mission log.

Question 236-26 : Following an accident involved with dangerous goods how much time does an operator have before he must report to the competent authority ?

72 hours.

Cat mpa200
exemple 436: 72 hours
12 hours. 24 hours. 48 hours.

Question 236-27 : Cat commercial air transport means an aircraft operation to transport ?

Passengers cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration.

Icao annex 6 and easa air ops
exemple 440: Passengers cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration
Passengers, cargo or mail, with or without remuneration. cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration. passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration.

Question 236-28 : 1 the operator shall establish procedures to ensure that before taxiing take off and landing all exits and escape paths are unobstructed2 the commander shall ensure that before take off and landing and whenever deemed necessary in the interest of safety all equipment and baggage are properly ?

1 is correct 2 is correct.

Catopmpa230
exemple 444: 1 is correct 2 is correct
1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

Question 236-29 : A turbine powered aeroplane must be equipped with an acas for a ?

Mctom of more than 5700 kg or an mopsc of more than 19.

Mctom maximum certificated take off massmopsc maximum operational passenger seating configuration catidea155 airborne collision avoidance system acas unless otherwise provided for by regulation eu no 13322011 turbine powered aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5700 kg or an mopsc of more than 19 shall be equipped with acas ii
exemple 448: Mctom of more than 5700 kg or an mopsc of more than 19
Mctom of more than 5700 kg or an mopsc of more than 9. mctom of more than 27000 kg or an mopsc of more than 19. mctom of more than 27000 kg or an mopsc of more than 9.

Question 236-30 : Easa air ops selection of aerodromes if the afm does not contain an oei one engine inoperative cruising speed the speed to be used for calculation shall be that which is achieved with the remaining engine s set at ?

Maximum continuous power.

exemple 452: Maximum continuous power
Maximum route speed for engine efficiency. maximum power. minimum power.

Question 236-31 : For turbo jet aircraft in the flight preparation stage the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of ?

06.

06 for turbo jet aircraft07 for turbo propeller aircraft
exemple 456: 06
0.7 0.8 0.5

Question 236-32 : For turbo propeller aircraft in the flight preparation stage the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of ?

07.

06 for turbo jet aircraft07 for turbo propeller aircraft
exemple 460: 07
0.6 0.5 0.8

Question 236-33 : An aircraft is configured for seating 61 to 200 passengers what is the requirement for hand held fire extinguishers ?

3 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

At least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment s 2628
exemple 464: 3 conveniently located in the passenger compartment
4 conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 5 conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 6 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 236-34 : Animals on board when can the captain leave the cockpit to check on them ?

Only in the interests of safety.

Question 236-35 : What is the minimum number of inexperienced flight crew members permissible on a flight ?

1.

Orofc200 composition of flight crew
exemple 472: 1
2. 3. 35% rounded up to the nearest whole person.

Question 236-36 : According to easa air ops a category iiib operations is a precision instrument approach and landing using ils or mls where at night ?

An approach is accomplished in such low visibility that runway lights may not be seen.

Catopmpa305 e commencement and continuation of approach
exemple 476: An approach is accomplished in such low visibility that runway lights may not be seen
An approach and landing landing is accomplished manually without any outside reference. the flight crew will not see any runway lighting. no visual references or lighting are required since any category which is higher than cat i is always accomplished automatically.

Question 236-37 : It is recommended that pilots should request their oceanic clearance ?

At 40 minutes prior to the the oceanic entry point eta.

exemple 480: At 40 minutes prior to the the oceanic entry point eta
At the oceanic entry point. at or prior the oceanic entry point. at 15 minutes prior to the the oceanic entry point eta.

Question 236-38 : Each flight crew member shall complete a recurrent flight and ground training relevant to the type or variant of aircraft on which heshe operates including training on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried this training has to be completed every ?

12 months.

Ecqb05 january 2019 orofc130 recurrent training and checking a each flight crew member shall complete annual recurrent flight and ground training relevant to the type or variant of aircraft on which heshe operates including training on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried b each flight crew member shall be periodically checked to demonstrate competence in carrying out normal abnormal and emergency procedures
exemple 484: 12 months
6 months. 36 months. 24 months.

Question 236-39 : An aircraft is configured for seating 31 to 60 passengers what is the requirement for hand held fire extinguishers ?

2 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

At least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment s 2628
exemple 488: 2 conveniently located in the passenger compartment
3 conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 4 conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 5 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 236-40 : An aircraft is configured for seating 201 to 300 passengers what is the requirement for hand held fire extinguishers ?

4 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

At least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment s 2628
exemple 492: 4 conveniently located in the passenger compartment
3 conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 6 conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 5 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.



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