Question 6-1 : A license holder may excercise certain privileges that depend on their ? [ Formation assignment ]
Ratings
Note this question was made from a limited amount of broken feedback so may have a completely different wording/options in the exam we believe that 'ratings' will be the correct answer but read the question careful and use your knowledge to verify this also as always any feedback is much appreciated thank you the closest learning objective is 010 04 02 02 03 list the two factors that are relevant to the exercise of the privileges of a licence . source aircrew regulation point fcl 040 exercise of the privileges of licenceslicenses are worth nothing without ratings in them you could have a cpl for instance but if the ratings you have expire or are suspended for any reason then the license does not allow any priveleges to be excercised this is quite common in pilots who stop flying for a while and whilst they hold a non expiring license their ratings have expired and they cannot fly any aircraft as pic etc
Question 6-2 : According to sera what documents shall a flight crew member carry when performing a flight ?
A valid flight crew licence a valid medical certificate and a form of photo id
Refer to figure .learning objective 010 04 02 02 07 describe the obligation to carry and present documents e g a flight crew licence under part fcl .source aircrew regulation point fcl 045 obligation to carry and present documents..the annex above describes fcl 045 and its requirement for the pilot s carrying various documents with them on their flights .parts a and b both describe documents that must be carried which include the valid licence and valid medical as well as the photo id .a common misconception is that a pilot must also carry their paper logbook but actually the regulation staes that they must present their flight time record without undue delay which can have some interpretation but means that an electronic version can be carried instead etc .for this reason the more correct answer is licence medical and photo id
Question 6-3 : According to part fcl multi crew cooperation mcc is ?
The functioning of the flight crew as a team of cooperating members lead by the pilot in command
Note this came as very incomplete feedback so we have had to make some of the options up ourselves to fill in the gaps any further feedback would be gratefully received thank you .learning objective 010 04 02 01 02 define the following multi crew cooperation mcc multi pilot aircraft rating source aircrew regulation point fcl 010 definitions .part fcl.. 'multi crew cooperation' mcc means the functioning of the flight crew as a team of cooperating members led by the pilot in command ..to go through the other options .. 'a management system in which the flight crew makes optimum use of all the available resources both on ground and in the aircraft '. . it looks like that this is describing crm crew resource management an important part of learning mcc multi crew cooperation but not the definition . . . 'the functioning of the flight crew as a team of cooperating members lead by the pilot in command '. . correct this is the exact definition of mcc as shown above from part fcl . . . 'a method of avoiding undesired aircraft states by identifying and managing threats and errors '. . this is one we made up to fill in the gap in feedback it is a loose definition of threat and error management . . . 'a management style where the pilot in command controls all the decisions and takes very few inputs from other crew members '. . another one we made up a definition of an autocratic leadership style in the cockpit
Question 6-4 : A flight crew license shall be issued… ?
Either in plastic card or in paper form
Icao annex 1.chapter 5 specifications for personnel licences.5 1 personnel licences issued by a contracting state in accordance with the relevant provisions of this annex shall conform to the following specifications .5 1 2 material.first quality paper or other suitable material including plastic cards shall be used and the items mentioned in 5 1 1 2 shown clearly thereon ..note flight crew licenses fcls can be either in first quality paper or other suitable material including plastic cards icao annex 1 .crew member certificates cmcs shall be issued only in the form of machine readable cards in accordance with the specifications of doc 9303 part 5 icao annex 9
Question 6-5 : A pilot's license holder applies for an aerobatic rating the holder must undergo a training course at an ato or dto and must be aware that the privileges of the aerobatic rating ?
May be exercised for the aircraft category in which the flight instruction was completed
Easa aircrew . fcl 800 aerobatic rating . a holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly aeroplanes or tmgs shall undertake aerobatic flights only if they hold an aerobatic rating in accordance with this point b applicants for an aerobatic rating shall have completed 1 after the issue of the licence at least 30 hours of flight time as pic in aeroplanes or tmgs 2 a training course at dto or at an ato including i theoretical knowledge instruction appropriate for the rating ii at least 5 hours of aerobatic instruction in aeroplanes or tmgs flown with engine power c the privileges of the aerobatic rating shall be limited to aerobatic flight in either aeroplanes or tmgs flown with engine power depending on which aircraft the requirements of b 1 and b 2 ii were complied with this limitation shall be lifted upon application if a pilot has successfully completed at least 3 dual training flights in aeroplanes or tmgs flown with engine power as applicable covering the full aerobatic training syllabus fcl 805 sailplane towing and banner towing ratings . a holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly aeroplanes or tmgs shall only tow sailplanes or banners when they hold the appropriate sailplane towing or banner towing rating according to easa aircrew fcl an aerobatic rating does not include sailplane towing or banner towing sailplanes and banners require the appropriate sailplane or banner rating additionally aerobatic rating is limited to the aircraft category in which the aerobatic instruction was completed
Question 6-6 : What are the privilages of a pilot holding an atpl a license ?
Lapl ppl cpl atpl pic on commercial flights
Lapl light aircraft pilot licence . ppl private pilot licence . cpl commercial pilot licence . atpl airline transport pilot licenceeasa part fcl . fcl 505 atpl — privileges a the privileges of the holder of an atpl are within the appropriate aircraft category to 1 exercise all the privileges of the holder of an lapl a ppl and a cpl 2 act as pic of aircraft engaged in commercial air transport b applicants for the issue of an atpl shall have fulfilled the requirements for the type rating of the aircraft used in the skill test
Question 6-7 : A pilot licence holder with a valid class 1 medical certificate is experiencing a considerable impairment in his/her visual acuity accompanied by chronic headaches the pilot must stop ?
Exercising all the privileges of his/her licence
Easa aircrew regulation eu 2019/27 med a 020 decrease in medical fitness a licence holders shall not exercise the privileges of their licence and related ratings or certificates and student pilots shall not fly solo at any time when they 1 are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges . 2 take or use any prescribed or non prescribed medication which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence . 3 receive any medical surgical or other treatment that is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence
Question 6-8 : A pilot that holds a multi engine rating with an instrument rating ir and flies large aircraft wishes to operate single engine piston aircraft under ifr as well what are the ratings required 1 license relative to single engine aircraft sep .2 license relative to large multi engine aircraft mep .3 ?
1 and 2
Fcl 040 exercise of the privileges of licencesthe exercise of the privileges granted by a licence shall be dependent upon the validity of the ratings contained therein if applicable and of the medical certificate part fcl .appendix 8 cross crediting of the ir part of a class or type rating proficiency check .a aeroplanescredits shall be granted only when the holder is revalidating ir privileges for single engine and single pilot multi engine aeroplanes as appropriate in order to exercise the ir privilages to fly under ifr while flying a single engine piston aircraft the pilot should carry a valid rating of a single engine piston aircraft sep since he/she will continue to fly large aeroplanes as well the license relative to large multi engine aircraft mep is also required
Question 6-9 : A mpl multi crew pilot license gives you the right to… ?
Act as co pilot in an aircraft which requires a co pilot
Easa aircrew . fcl 405 a mpl – privileges a the privileges of the holder of an mpl are to act as co pilot in an aeroplane required to be operated with a co pilot b the holder of an mpl may obtain the extra privileges of 1 the holder of a ppl a provided that the requirements for the ppl a specified in subpart c are met . 2 a cpl a provided that the requirements specified in fcl 325 a are met c the holder of an mpl shall have the privileges of his/her ir a limited to aeroplanes required to be operated with a co pilot the privileges of the ir a may be extended to single pilot operations in aeroplanes provided that the licence holder has completed the training necessary to act as pic in single pilot operations exercised solely by reference to instruments and passed the skill test of the ir a as a single pilot
Question 6-10 : A performance class b aeroplane is a ?
Propeller aircraft with mtom 5700 kg or less mopsc 9 or less
Easa air ops .annex i definitions‘performance class a aeroplanes’ means multi engined aeroplanes powered by turbo propeller engines with an mopsc of more than nine or a maximum take off mass exceeding 5700 kg and all multi engined turbo jet powered aeroplanes ‘performance class b aeroplanes’ means aeroplanes powered by propeller engines with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration of nine or less and a maximum take off mass of 5700 kg or less ‘performance class c aeroplanes’ means aeroplanes powered by reciprocating engines with an mopsc of more than nine or a maximum take off mass exceeding 5700 kg
Question 6-11 : A pilot undergoes a surgery what is the appropriate course of action ?
Seek advice from an ame/aeromedical center
Ame aero medical examiner . .aemc aero medical center . .gmp general medical practitioner..easa aircrew . .med a 020 decrease in medical fitness. b in addition holders of a medical certificate shall without undue delay and before exercising the privileges of their licence seek aero medical advice from the aemc ame or gmp as applicable when they . 1 have undergone a surgical operation or invasive procedure . 2 have commenced the regular use of any medication . 3 have suffered any significant personal injury involving incapacity to function as a member of the flight crew . 4 have been suffering from any significant illness involving incapacity to function as a member of the flight crew . 5 are pregnant . 6 have been admitted to hospital or medical clinic . 7 first require correcting lenses . c in the cases referred to in point b . 1 holders of class 1 and class 2 medical certificates shall seek the aero medical advice of an aemc or ame in that case the aemc or ame shall assess their medical fitness and decide whether they are fit to resume the exercise of their privileges . 2 holders of light aircraft pilot licence medical certificates shall seek the aero medical advice of an aemc an ame or the gmp who signed the medical certificate in that case the aemc ame or gmp shall assess their medical fitness and decide whether they are fit to resume the exercise of their privileges
Question 6-12 : For a single pilot multi engine class rating how many flight hours are required and what is the period of its validity ?
70 hours 1 year
For the type ratings and class ratings validity the following applies according to easa part fcl type rating validity 1 yearclass rating validity 1 year exception single pilot single engine class rating 2 years the experience requirements for a single pilot multi engine aeroplane are 70 hours as pic on aeroplanes easa aircrew regulation eu 2019/1747 .fcl 740 validity and renewal of class and type ratings a the period of validity of class and type ratings shall be 1 year except for single pilot single engine class ratings for which the period of validity shall be 2 years unless otherwise determined by the operational suitability data established in accordance with part 21 fcl 720 a experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of class or type ratings — aeroplanesunless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with part 21 an applicant for a class or type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of the relevant rating a single pilot multi engine aeroplanes an applicant for a first class or type rating on a single pilot multi engine aeroplane shall have completed at least 70 hours as pic on aeroplanes
Question 6-13 : A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals ?
Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of body then clench fist
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Question 6-14 : Aircraft 'a' with an atc clearance is flying in vmc conditions within a control area aircraft 'b' with no atc clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course .which has the right of way ?
Aircraft 'b' if 'a' is on its left
When two aircraft are converging on approximately the same heading the aircraft which has the other on its right must give way . 704
Question 6-15 : Which fl can be used to perform a ifr flight on a magnetic track of 070° in non rvsm airspace ?
Fl 330
Jeppesen europe high altitude enroute charts . 710.or annex 2 rules of the air . 709
Question 6-16 : Upon intercepting the assigned radial the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to 'resume own navigation' this phrase means that ?
You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation
Question 6-17 : An aircraft shall display if so equipped an anti collision light ?
To attract attention to the aircraft
Annex 2 rules of the air . 3 2 3 lights to be displayed by aircraft .3 2 3 1 except as provided by 3 2 3 5 from sunset to sunrise or during any other period which may be prescribed by the appropriate authority all aircraft in flight shall display .a anti collision lights intended to attract attention to the aircraft and.b navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights .3 2 3 2 except as provided by 3 2 3 5 from sunset to sunrise or during any other period prescribed by the appropriate authority .a all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome shall display navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights .b unless stationary and otherwise adequately illuminated all aircraft on the movement area of an aerodrome shall display lights intended to indicate the extremities of their structure .c all aircraft operating on the movement area of an aerodrome shall display lights intended to attract attention to the aircraft and.d all aircraft on the movement area of an aerodrome whose engines are running shall display lights which indicate that fact
Question 6-18 : Anti collision lights aircraft equipped with red anticollision lights may display them ?
On the ground when the engines are running
Icao annex 2 rules of the air .3 2 3 lights to be displayed by aircraft.3 2 3 1 except as provided by 3 2 3 5 from sunset to sunrise or during any other period which may be prescribed by the appropriate authority all aircraft in flight shall display .a anti collision lights intended to attract attention to the aircraft and.b navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights .3 2 3 2 except as provided by 3 2 3 5 from sunset to sunrise or during any other period prescribed by the appropriate authority .a all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome shall display navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights .b unless stationary and otherwise adequately illuminated all aircraft on the movement area of an aerodrome shall display lights intended to indicate the extremities of their structure .c all aircraft operating on the movement area of an aerodrome shall display lights intended to attract attention to the aircraft and.d all aircraft on the movement area of an aerodrome whose engines are running shall display lights which indicate that fact
Question 6-19 : The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the ?
Pilot in command
Question 6-20 : Avoidance of collisions .an aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to ?
Aircraft taking off or about to take off
Question 6-21 : Avoidance of collisions .the highest priority for landing has ?
An aircraft that is compelled to land emergency landing
Question 6-22 : Deviation from flight plan .pilots of controlled flights are requested to inform the appropriate ats whenever the average tas at cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to vary from the tas given in the flight plan by ?
5%
Question 6-23 : Except when a clearance is obtained from an atc unit a vfr flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than ?
1500 ft or visibility is less than 5 km
Icao annex 2 rules of the air chaper 4 visual flight rules . .4 2 except when a clearance is obtained from an air traffic control unit vfr flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern .a when the ceiling is less than 450 m 1500 ft or.b when the ground visibility is less than 5 km
Question 6-24 : Flight plan inadvertent track changes .in the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan action should be taken in order to ?
Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
Question 6-25 : Flight plan .for flights in accordance with ifr within advisory airspace a flight plan ?
Shall be submitted changes to the flight plan have to be reported
Doc 4444 .9 1 4 2 2 aircraft not using the air traffic advisory service.9 1 4 2 2 1 aircraft wishing to conduct ifr flights within advisory airspace but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the unit providing that service
Question 6-26 : Icao annex 2 definitions .who is charged with the safe conduct of a flight ?
The pilot in command
Pilot in command means the pilot designated by the operator or in the case of general aviation the owner as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of a flight
Question 6-27 : If no icao identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport box 16 of a flight plan form ?
Write zzzz in box 16 and indicate in box 18 additional information altn/followed by the name of the airport
When you have to fill a flight plan you have to indicate your departure airport your destination and your alternate airport .example .depature madrid barajas airport icao identifier lemd .destination london heathrow airport icao identifier egll .alternate brussels south charleroi icao identifier ebci .doc4444 specified the following rule if no location indicator has been assigned to the alternate aerodrome .insert zzzz and specify in item 18 the name of the aerodrome preceded by altn/
Question 6-28 : If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?
Descend
You will find the answer with icao annex 2 rules of the air appendix 2 'interception of civil aircraft'. 3 radiocommunication during interception .if radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common language is not possible attempts shall be made to convey instructions acknowledgement of instructions and essential information by using the phrases and pronunciations in table below and transmitting each phrase twice . 711
Question 6-29 : If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ?
Can not
Icao annex 2 rules of the air appendix 2 'interception of civil aircraft' . 3 radiocommunication during interception .if radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common language is not possible attempts shall be made to convey instructions acknowledgement of instructions and essential information by using the phrases and pronunciations in table below and transmitting each phrase twice . 711
Question 6-30 : In the event of a delay of a controlled flight the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of ?
30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks
Icao pans atm doc 4444 .4 4 2 submission of a flight plan.4 4 2 1 prior to departure. .4 4 2 1 3 in the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated off block time for a controlled flight or a delay of one hour for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan canceled whichever is applicable
Question 6-31 : In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan the appropriate ats unit has to be informed ?
The tas varies by plus or minus 5% of the tas notified in the flight plan
Sera 8020 adherence to flight plan . .b inadvertent changes in the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan the following action shall be taken . 1 deviation from track if the aircraft is off track action shall be taken forthwith to adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable . 2 variation in true airspeed if the average true airspeed at cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to vary by plus or minus 5 per cent of the true airspeed from that given in the flight plan the appropriate air traffic services unit shall be so informed . 3 change in time estimate if the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point flight information region boundary or destination aerodrome whichever comes first is found to be in error in excess of 2 minutes from that notified to air traffic services or such other period of time as is prescribed by the competent authority or on the basis of icao regional air navigation agreements a revised estimated time shall be notified as soon as possible to the appropriate air traffic services unit . 4 additionally when an ads c agreement is in place the air traffic services unit shall be informed automatically via data link whenever changes occur beyond the threshold values stipulated by the ads c event contract
Question 6-32 : Interception.an aircraft equipped with ssr transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit select mode a ?
Code 7700
Icao annex 2 rules of the air .appendix 2 interception of civil aircraft. note see chapter 3 3 8 of the annex . . 2 action by intercepted aircraft .2 1 an aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately .a follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft interpreting and responding to visual signals in accordance with the specifications in appendix 1 .b notify if possible the appropriate air traffic services unit .c attempt to establish radiocommunication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit by making a general call on the emergency frequency 121 5 mhz giving the identity of the intercepted aircraft and the nature of the flight and if no contact has been established and if practicable repeating this call on the emergency frequency 243 mhz .d if equipped with ssr transponder select mode a code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic services unit .e if equipped with ads b or ads c select the appropriate emergency functionality if available unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic services unit .for information .distress/general emergency 7700 .unlawful interference/hijacking 7500 .communication failure 7600
Question 6-33 : Interception day or night .which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot of this aircraft wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'you may proceed' ?
An abrupt break away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft
Question 6-34 : Interception .if any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals the intercepted aircraft shall ?
Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification
Question 6-35 : Raise hand just above shoulder height with open palm ensuring eye contact with flight crew close hand into a fist .this signal from a signalman means ?
Set brakes
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Question 6-36 : Special vfr flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class ?
E airspace
Special vfr flight a vfr flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below vmc .annex 11 air traffic services official table . 740.as a standard vfr flight in class e airspace a radio receiver is not required
Question 6-37 : The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form this speed is the ?
True air speed tas
Question 6-38 : The vmc minima for a vfr flight inside an ats airspace classified as b is ?
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m 10000 ft amsl and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
Sera 5001 vmc visibility and distance from cloud minima . 712. * when the height of the transition altitude is lower than 3050 m 10000 ft amsl fl 100 shall be used in lieu of 10000 ft . ** when so prescribed by the appropriate ats authority .a flight visibilities reduced to not less than 1 500 m may be permitted for flights operating . 1 at speeds of 140 kts ias or less to give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision or. 2 in circumstances in which the probability of encounters with other traffic would normally be low e g in areas of low volume traffic and for aerial work at low levels . b helicopters may be permitted to operate in less than 1 500 m but not less than 800 m flight visibility if manoeuvred at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision flight visibilities lower than 800 m may be permitted for special cases such as medical flights search and rescue operations and fire fighting . *** the vmc minima in class a airspace are included for guidance to pilots and do not imply acceptance of vfr flights in class a airspace
Question 6-39 : Visual signals .in flight in the aerodrome pattern the pilot of an aircraft observes a series of red flashes the meaning of this signal is ?
Aerodrome unsafe do not land
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Question 6-40 : Visual flight rules .an aircraft operating in accordance with vfr above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft amsl outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least ?
A distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km
Sera 5001 vmc visibility and distance from cloud minima . 712. * when the height of the transition altitude is lower than 3050 m 10000 ft amsl fl 100 shall be used in lieu of 10000 ft . ** si l'autorité compétente le prescrit .a flight visibilities reduced to not less than 1 500 m may be permitted for flights operating . 1 at speeds of 140 kts ias or less to give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision or. 2 in circumstances in which the probability of encounters with other traffic would normally be low e g in areas of low volume traffic and for aerial work at low levels . b helicopters may be permitted to operate in less than 1 500 m but not less than 800 m flight visibility if manoeuvred at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision flight visibilities lower than 800 m may be permitted for special cases such as medical flights search and rescue operations and fire fighting . *** the vmc minima in class a airspace are included for guidance to pilots and do not imply acceptance of vfr flights in class a airspace
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